Behold, now read scripture and the words with knowledge of their meaning along with context without just listing disjoined statements. I believe you could even write a commentary on the subject as you have shown previously on the subject of salvation....that does ring loud and clear. You do want to be thorough and clear?
Take for example the Greek term 'logos' for the English term 'word,' and it does not have to be translated as 'word.' The majority of translators chose this term and most even capitalized it. It can just say 'word.' Speaking of logos - logic, reasoning expression of thought etc. the Greek word logos is not and never is a real person or personality regardless whether the Greek as the Spanish and the French place gender types on their nouns and pronouns. The 'logos' happens to be a masculine gender in Greek and when translated into English as every word of this type they became a neuter 'it,' The French call the English word table le Tableaux/table and it is also considered a masculine gender. We don't call a table a 'he' now do we, only an 'it.' So what happed here in John? Why in all of scripture did the Greek transliterated term 'logos' in this one place in John, became a person? I believe you really have to answer that question, truthfully, clearly and thoroughly with 110% accuracy.
So there is no possibility of 'Who' is the word. It is WHAT is the word. And I can answer that for you, truthfully although will not agree with this truth and most probably reply by pivoting towards a substitute or associated verse as your solid support, although it will be built on sand I'm afraid. And I wager you will again implicate the circular illogical reasoning of John 1:14. This is not truth and it does not make sense contextually or grammatically and in the spirit of common understanding. What you would then again accomplish in doing, as many before you, is to corrupt redefine the meaning of not only the term 'logos' but also the Son and from where the word originates, from the Father.
And the never ending beat goes on I'm afraid........as usual
That's real convenient for you, isn't it? If we wish to disagree with you, John 1:14 is off limits? Just because you say so? NO part of scripture is to be ignored. Of course it's off limits, because it disproves your so-called interpretation. Using ANY verse in the Bible pertaining to this topic, and contradicting your opinion, is NOT building on sand. John 1:14 is the word of God, not circular, illogical reasoning. It's too bad you have such a low opinion of God's word.
A "WHAT"
cannot BE God and it
cannot become flesh, and
dwell among us. ONLY a "WHO"
can BE God and
become flesh, and
dwell among us. So you're wrong right from the start.
John is an extremely powerful book, clearly displaying the evidence of the Trinity and the substance of the Deity of Jesus and especially John 1 - which is why all of you non-Trins attack it over and over. But to no avail. You are wrong. The Bible is right.
Even 1 John 1:1 disproves your faulty interpretation: "What was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we have looked at and touched with our hands, concerning the Word of Life ..."
I know what you're thinking. John says "what" not "who". Correct but what is the "what" he is referring to? He tells us the "what" is the eternal life, which was with the Father and was manifested to us. That eternal life, 1 John 5:11 tells us,
IS IN HIS SON, and He is a "WHO", not a "WHAT".
John and the other apostles
heard Jesus, saw Jesus,
looked at Jesus, and
touched Jesus, and He
WAS ETERNAL LIFE in the flesh, and before coming to earth, He was the Word, and the Word
was with God, and
the Word was God.
Also a "WHAT" cannot have gender and yet the WORD is referred to as "He" in verse 2; in verse 3 the WORD is called "Him" two times; and again "Him" is used in verse 4.
Jesus is also called "The Word of God" in Revelation 19:13. The Bible itself shuts down your argument.