The Trinity The Touchstone of Truth

[101G]

Jesus Christ is not a lexical definition of logos. The verse does not say "In the beginning was Jesus." The "Word" is not synonymous with Jesus, or even the "Messiah." The word logos in John 1:1 refers to God's creative self-expression... His reason, purpose and plans, especially as they are brought into action. It refers to God's self-expression or communication of Himself. This has come to pass through His creation and especially the heavens. It has come through the spoken word of the prophets and through Scripture. Most notably it has come into being through His Son. The logos is the expression of God and is His communication of Himself just as a "word" is an outward expression of a person's thoughts. This outward expression of God has now occurred through His Son and thus it's perfectly understandable why Jesus is called the "Word." Jesus is an outward expression of God's reason, wisdom, purpose and plan. For the same reason we call revelation "a word from God" and the Bible "the Word of God."

If we understand that the logos is God's expression... His plan, purpose, reason and wisdom. Then it is clear they were with Him "in the beginning." Scripture says God's wisdom was "from the beginning" and it was common in Hebrew writing to personify a concept such as wisdom. The fact that the logos "became" flesh shows it did not exist that way before. There is no pre-existence for Jesus in this verse other than his figurative "existence" as the plan, purpose or wisdom of God for the salvation of man. The same is true with the "word" in writing. It had no literal pre-existence as a "spirit-book" somehow in eternity past, but came into being as God gave the revelation to people and they wrote it down.

Good post, but one question. is not God the LORD (all caps) the Father who is the First? supportive scripture, Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he." and the First/Father/LORD is "WITH" the Last. and is not the Last is the Lord/the Son/Jesus who .... "WAS" ... called christ, the Last Adam? 1 Corinthians 15:45 "And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit." 1 Corinthians 15:46 "Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual." 1 Corinthians 15:47 "The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven."

so, with that KNOWLEDGE, is not the Lord from heaven Spirit, and was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') while on earth in flesh, per Phil. 2:7?

knowing that, is it not JUST "ONE" Spirit? and that one Spirit is the First and the Last the same one Person, who is the Spirit. supportive scripture, 1 Peter 1:10 "Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you:" 1 Peter 1:11 "Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow."

and did not the prophets of old prophesied by the Holy Spirit that moved them to prophesied? supportive scripture, 2 Peter 1:21 "For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost."

there is only ONE SPIRIT.

101G

 

[Peterlag]

Good post, but one question. is not God the LORD (all caps) the Father who is the First? supportive scripture, Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he." and the First/Father/LORD is "WITH" the Last. and is not the Last is the Lord/the Son/Jesus who .... "WAS" ... called christ, the Last Adam? 1 Corinthians 15:45 "And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit." 1 Corinthians 15:46 "Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual." 1 Corinthians 15:47 "The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven."

so, with that KNOWLEDGE, is not the Lord from heaven Spirit, and was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') while on earth in flesh, per Phil. 2:7?

knowing that, is it not JUST "ONE" Spirit? and that one Spirit is the First and the Last the same one Person, who is the Spirit. supportive scripture, 1 Peter 1:10 "Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you:" 1 Peter 1:11 "Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow."

and did not the prophets of old prophesied by the Holy Spirit that moved them to prophesied? supportive scripture, 2 Peter 1:21 "For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost."

there is only ONE SPIRIT.

101G

You and many here are comparing "the Lord" of the Old Testament and "the Lord" of the New Testament and saying they are the same. They are not. God was the Lord in the Old Testament. Jesus is the Lord of the New Testament. This happened after Jesus was raised from the dead that God made Jesus both Lord and Christ.

Acts 2:36
Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

 

[civic]

You and many here are comparing "the Lord" of the Old Testament and "the Lord" of the New Testament and saying they are the same. They are not. God was the Lord in the Old Testament. Jesus is the Lord of the New Testament. This happened after Jesus was raised from the dead that God made Jesus both Lord and Christ.

Acts 2:36
Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

Nope Paul declares it’s the same Lord who is Lord over all- it’s the Son. The same Lord in Joel 2:32 is the same Lord is Roman’s 10 which Paul identified as Christ.

See Roman’s 10:9-13.

 

[101G]

You and many here are comparing "the Lord" of the Old Testament and "the Lord" of the New Testament and saying they are the same. They are not. God

is not the Lord .... the LORD ... shared in flesh? scripture, Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool." the "Lord" here in verse 1 is the Hebrew term,
H113 אָדוֹן 'adown (aw-done') n-m.
אָדֹן 'adon (aw-done') [shortened]
1. sovereign (i.e. controller, human or divine).
2. lord.
{also used as a prefix for names}
[from an unused root (meaning to rule)]
KJV: lord, master, owner.

this same "Lord" in verse 1 is the same "Lord" in verse 5. Psalms 110:5 "The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath." here the "Lord" is the Hebrew term,
H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113

this is the same LORD/Lord in verse 1. so, the million dollar question, "How is the (Lord) in verse 1 different but the same (Lord) in verse 5? which is the emphatic form of H113 my Lord in verse 1.

101G.

101G.

 

[Peterlag]

is not the Lord .... the LORD ... shared in flesh? scripture, Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool." the "Lord" here in verse 1 is the Hebrew term,
H113 אָדוֹן 'adown (aw-done') n-m.
אָדֹן 'adon (aw-done') [shortened]
1. sovereign (i.e. controller, human or divine).
2. lord.
{also used as a prefix for names}
[from an unused root (meaning to rule)]
KJV: lord, master, owner.

this same "Lord" in verse 1 is the same "Lord" in verse 5. Psalms 110:5 "The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath." here the "Lord" is the Hebrew term,
H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113

this is the same LORD/Lord in verse 1. so, the million dollar question, "How is the (Lord) in verse 1 different but the same (Lord) in verse 5? which is the emphatic form of H113 my Lord in verse 1.

101G.

101G.

See you think the Lord in the Old Testament and the Lord in the Epistles are the same being. I rest my case.

 

[101G]

See you think the Lord in the Old Testament and the Lord in the Epistles are the same being. I rest my case.

THINK? Oh no, ..... KNOW, 101G will leave all the THINKING to you. as 101G always says, address the scriptures and not the person. and because you cannot address the scriptures, you rest. and that's good ... because the scriptures are not changing for you or 101G. yes, the Lord in flesh that was to come is the LORD who is the Spirit in the OT. the Diversifying of one self is the TRUTH to KNOW as 101G motto is ... "Where there is Knowledge, Stay not Ignorant".

101G

 

[Peterlag]

THINK? Oh no, ..... KNOW, 101G will leave all the THINKING to you. as 101G always says, address the scriptures and not the person. and because you cannot address the scriptures, you rest. and that's good ... because the scriptures are not changing for you or 101G. yes, the Lord in flesh that was to come is the LORD who is the Spirit in the OT. the Diversifying of one self is the TRUTH to KNOW as 101G motto is ... "Where there is Knowledge, Stay not Ignorant".

101G

I address Scriptures all the time on here and because you deny what I post is why you say I do not post Scripture.

 

[101G]

I address Scriptures all the time on here and because you deny what I post is why you say I do not post Scripture.

101G address the scriptures. not u. so again, do post #544 declare that the LORD is the Lord diversified in flesh. if no then address the definition of "Lord" in verse 5 of Psalms 110.
Lord: H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113

101G.

 

[dwight92070]

What a bunch of hooey. No scripture tells us that the Word refers to God's creative self-expression. Rather, in context, the Word refers to Jesus, who became flesh.

 

[dwight92070]

You and many here are comparing "the Lord" of the Old Testament and "the Lord" of the New Testament and saying they are the same. They are not. God was the Lord in the Old Testament. Jesus is the Lord of the New Testament. This happened after Jesus was raised from the dead that God made Jesus both Lord and Christ.

Acts 2:36
Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

For someone who "teaches" how to walk in the Spirit, it's amazing how little you know of the word. Jesus was called both Lord and Christ right after he was born, by an angel of the Lord. Luke 2:11
"for today in the city of David there has been born for you a Savior, who is Christ the Lord."

Acts 2:36 does not say that God made Jesus Lord and Christ after God raised Him from the dead. You assumed that, but He already was both Lord and Christ.

It must be because you don't believe that Jesus is God.

 

[Peterlag]

For someone who "teaches" how to walk in the Spirit, it's amazing how little you know of the word. Jesus was called both Lord and Christ right after he was born, by an angel of the Lord. Luke 2:11
"for today in the city of David there has been born for you a Savior, who is Christ the Lord."

Acts 2:36 does not say that God made Jesus Lord and Christ after God raised Him from the dead. You assumed that, but He already was both Lord and Christ.

It must be because you don't believe that Jesus is God.

The title "Lord" (Greek, Kurious) as Kittel's observes, means "one who has full authority." In the Old Testament, God alone had "full authority" and filled both functions of Creator (Elohim) and Lord (Jehovah). Jehovah is used in connection with men with whom He has entered into some kind of covenant, starting with Adam in Genesis 2:7, and including Israel. Several redemptive characteristics and divine functions are associated with the sacred name Jehovah (Yahweh), including giving righteousness (Jeremiah 23:6), healing (Exodus 15:26), sanctification (Exodus 31:13), providing (Genesis 22:14), protection from enemies (Exodus 17:15), giving peace (Judges 6:24), and being continually present (Ezekiel 48:35). These functions can be assumed and/or delegated by persons having the authority. God has delegated many, if not all of these divine functions to Jesus Christ to share in as "Lord."

 

[101G]

What a bunch of hooey. No scripture tells us that the Word refers to God's creative self-expression. Rather, in context, the Word refers to Jesus, who became flesh.

Correct, for the Lord Jesus is the WISDOM that express God "Happiness" in creating the Heavens and the earth. supportive scripture. Genesis 1:3 "And God said, Let there be light: and there was light."
Light here is not the same type of Light that is produce by the sun in day 4. Light here is "WISDOM" an Expression of God in creation.
LIGHT: H216 אוֹר 'owr (ore) n-f.
1. illumination.
2. (concretely) luminary (in every sense, including lightning, happiness, etc.).
[from H215]
KJV: bright, clear, + day, light (-ning), morning, sun.
Root(s): H215

Note definition #2 happiness where have we seen this in creation at? answer, Proverbs 8:22 "The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old." Proverbs 8:23 "I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was." Proverbs 8:24 "When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water." Proverbs 8:25 "Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:" Proverbs 8:26 "While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world." Proverbs 8:27 "When he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth:" Proverbs 8:28 "When he established the clouds above: when he strengthened the fountains of the deep:" Proverbs 8:29 "When he gave to the sea his decree, that the waters should not pass his commandment: when he appointed the foundations of the earth:" Proverbs 8:30 "Then I was by him, as one brought up with him: and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him;" Proverbs 8:31 "Rejoicing in the habitable part of his earth; and my delights were with the sons of men."
QUESTION, "what's another word for "rejoicing" and " delights?" answer, "happiness" bingo, there is God expression of his thoughts.

God did not make the Light; no, he formed Light. see Isa 45:5-7 Light. the VERY FIRST THING GOD MADE WAS GOOD, Visible/seen/Known and EVIL, invisible/unseen/unknown.. now we have a better understanding of the fall in the garden. (what was seen and unseen)

as "Light was Made, so was Man. John 1:4 "In him was life; and the life was the light of men."


101G