That's only about the Father.
GINOLJC, to all
ERROR, Listen and Learn, James 1:27 "Pure religion and undefiled before
God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep himself unspotted from the world." is this the same person God ....... "AND" ....... the Father? or is this the same one person God, Matthew 4:7 "Jesus said unto him, It is written again, Thou shalt not tempt
the Lord thy God."
Jesus denied being God in Matthew 12:31,32, clearly demonstrating that he is not the Holy Spirit.
Matthew 12:31 "Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men." Matthew 12:32 "And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the world to come."
was the Son of Man THEN GLORIFIRD on EARTH at that TIME? NO, but is he NOW GLORIFIED as the SPIRIT? YES, supportive scripture, Matthew 19:28 "And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me,
in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel." so your statement is Null and Void, and reproved..
YHWH? let's see, Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David.
The LORD said unto
my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool." Here the "LORD", all caps is the Father ... correct? and "
my Lord" is the ONE who you IGNORANTLY calls the Son, for the Hebrew term for Lord here is,
H113 אָדוֹן 'adown (aw-done') n-m.
אָדֹן 'adon (aw-done') [shortened]
1. sovereign (i.e. controller, human or divine).
2. lord.
{also used as a prefix for names}
[from an unused root (meaning to rule)]
KJV: lord, master, owner.
Compare: H136
NOTE, THIS IS
H113 אָדוֹן 'adown (aw-done') n-m.
now 4 verses later, Psalms 110:5 "
The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath." here the same "Lord" in verse 1 is the same Lord. and here the "
Lord" is the Hebrew term,
H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113
BINGO, definition #2. says the Lord in verse 1 is
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel”NOTE. is says in definition #2 (person).... Hello, who is “Yahweh God of Israel” and is not .... as you said, YHWH is the Father....... (smile)....... LOL, LOL, LOL, Oh how misinformed people are.
so all of your statement's above are reproved.
Now if you don't know what emphatic means, and How the Lord in verse 1 is YHWH, Just ask 101G....... (smile), and he will reveal it to you.
ye have not because ye ask NOT.
101G.