7xLightray
Member
"John 1:1-5 John declares that the Logos not only was with God, He was God. So in one sense, the Word must be distinguished from God, and in another sense, the Word must be identified with God."John 1:1-5 John declares that the Logos not only was with God, He was God. So in one sense, the Word must be distinguished from God, and in another sense, the Word must be identified with God.
But then along came monarchianism.
The first great heresy that the church had to confront with respect to monarchianism was called “modalistic monarchianism” or simply “modalism.” The idea behind modalism was that all three persons of the Trinity are the same person, but that they behave in unique “modes” at different times. Modalists held that God was initially the Creator, then became the Redeemer, then became the Spirit at Pentecost.
And on and on we go.
Adoptionism is another one
In time, according to adoptionism, the Logos became incarnate in the person of Jesus. In His human nature, the Logos was one with the Father in terms of carrying out the same mission and working toward the same goals. He was obedient to the Father, and because of His obedience, the Father “adopted” Him. Thus, it is proper to call the Logos the Son of God. However, He became the Son of God dynamically. There was a change. He was not always the Son of God, but His Sonship was something He earned.
Correct, but I follow not the Trinity (anymore), but I follow what Christ taught on how He became flesh Jn 6:51 (being why John wrote Jn 1:1,14); and "the only begotten son of God." How does a trinitarian consider Christ a son? By His flesh? No! His flesh is human from the earth; not a real son! By His person? No! He is God the person who always existed! Can't be the son any, if one always existed. So, He's not really a son, or even a only son!).
What verse(s) do you use to show, or back up the Trinity's version of the incarnation of Christ, how Christ taught how He became flesh?