Runningman
Well-known member
Future event. The plain reading of "so that God may be all in all" means that God is not "all in all" yet. It's because some of the Lordship has been delegated to Jesus. Read more of 1 Corinthians 15. Jesus loses his Lordship later one when he will be "made subject" to God.As I wrote..."so that God may be all in all." ... meaning, The Son, The Holy Spirit as well as Himself.
I am not oneness in that there is only one entity that makes up God in the Godhead. The Godhead is one.
There are only 3 in the Godhead. (Like you and your wife are one flesh. You are the head over her. If you send her to the store or the bank, while she is gone, you are still one flesh...... That is biblical. If we meet I would not know if you had another... but it is certain that if I met her in the grocery and she said she was Mrs. Runningman, I would know you are one....... and hands off, if I can be so blunt.
I am Trinitarian .
But since you are not, please answer the following . I believe YOU said the Spirit and the Father are one?????
It suggests in both Mathew and Luke that the Holy Spirit will impregnate Mary. (Not in those words but that is the meaning)
I'm just curious as to how you feel this all could have worked.
If the Father and Spirit are one....................... DID THE FATHER COME DOWN TO EARTH TO DO IT? If not, how, being one, could it have happened?
And if YOU do not believe the Father and Holy Spirit are one, but just God and Spirit so that the Father sent the Holy Spirit to earth . Would that not make the son Jesus God's adopted Son?
Last scenario.... Mary fell asleep and was translated to heaven where ... well, you know.
Jesus isn't God. Do you honestly still think that?
28And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.