󠅤 The Lord sent Jesus Christ

Someone posted this on the Internet...

The only thing trinitarians have is their own imagination, human reasoning, and picking one verse here, and another verse there, a hint here and a clue there and then they construct their "own God" which is the product of their own human reasoning process, speculations and assumptions. Nothing more. It's not the true and living God of the Bible, the God of Israel, the God of the Apostles or the God of Jesus. The trinity is an IDOL made by man and that is the reason why they cannot present one single biblical verse that clearly teaches that we should believe or confess that Jesus is God. The trinitarian God is a philosophical construct of their own minds that they literally built up like a Lego.
 
There are nearly two dozen names and titles that Jesus doesn't share with God. I may open a thread on that later. YHWH, the I AM, The God of Abraham, God Almighty, King of kings and Lord of lords just to name a few. Acts 3:13 is abundantly clear that Jesus doesn't match who God is, contrary to your argument.
Acts 3:13 aligns perfectly with Trinitarianism. The Person who appeared to Moses could not have been the Father because no one has seen the Father except for Christ (John 6:46). So it was the Preincarnate Christ who appeared, since whoever sees Jesus sees the Father (John 14:9). That perfectly aligns with the fact that Jesus called himself "I AM" in John 8:24 and allows Ex 3:14 to prove that Jesus is God.

Keep those Trinitarian verses coming!
 
Someone posted this on the Internet...

The only thing trinitarians have is their own imagination, human reasoning, and picking one verse here, and another verse there, a hint here and a clue there and then they construct their "own God" which is the product of their own human reasoning process, speculations and assumptions. Nothing more. It's not the true and living God of the Bible, the God of Israel, the God of the Apostles or the God of Jesus. The trinity is an IDOL made by man and that is the reason why they cannot present one single biblical verse that clearly teaches that we should believe or confess that Jesus is God. The trinitarian God is a philosophical construct of their own minds that they literally built up like a Lego.
That person is either ignorant or blind.

The proof of Jesus is YHWH/Jehovah and Adonai has always been under everyone's nose. The name Lord comes directly from κυριος as written in the Greek OT (Septuagint), and that in turn comes directly from YHWH/Jehovah and Adonai as written in the Hebrew text.

The Apostles followed the Septuagint and called Jesus κυριος (Lord) which is the Greek name for YHWH and Adonai. They did not use the name "Lord" (κυριος) for anyone besides Jesus and God the Father in the New Testament. While κυριος could be used culturally as a term of respect or authority, the Apostles specifically used "Lord" (κυριος) to indicate divine authority, reverence, or worship when referring to Jesus or God the Father.

For example, Peter addresses Jesus as "Lord" (κυριος) with the understanding of His divine nature, particularly after Jesus' resurrection (Acts 2:36). Similarly, "Lord"(κυριος) is also used in prayers addressed to God the Father (as in Acts 4:24). The Apostles reserve this title, in its spiritual sense, for the divine alone, and there is no record of them calling any other human "Lord" in the same way as they did for Jesus and the Father.

As if that wasn't enough, Jesus explicitly declared himself "I Am" (John 8:58), the very name of the OT God (Ex 3:14). Also, John declared the Word (the Preincarnate Jesus) in John 1:1 as being God, translated from θεὸς in Greek and from Elohim in Hebrew.
 
Acts 3:13 aligns perfectly with Trinitarianism. The Person who appeared to Moses could not have been the Father because no one has seen the Father except for Christ (John 6:46). So it was the Preincarnate Christ who appeared, since whoever sees Jesus sees the Father (John 14:9). That perfectly aligns with the fact that Jesus called himself "I AM" in John 8:24 and allows Ex 3:14 to prove that Jesus is God.

Keep those Trinitarian verses coming!
The one who appeared to Moses is YHWH as Scripture says. The Old Testament directly equates the Father to YHWH but never the Son.

Deut. 32
6Do ye thus requite the LORD, O foolish people and unwise? is not he thy father that hath bought thee? hath he not made thee, and established thee?

Isaiah 63
16Doubtless thou art our father, though Abraham be ignorant of us, and Israel acknowledge us not: thou, O LORD, art our father, our redeemer; thy name is from everlasting.

Isaiah 64
8But now, O LORD, thou art our father; we are the clay, and thou our potter; and we all are the work of thy hand.

Malachi 2
10Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers?
 
The one who appeared to Moses is YHWH as Scripture says. The Old Testament directly equates the Father to YHWH but never the Son.

Deut. 32
6Do ye thus requite the LORD, O foolish people and unwise? is not he thy father that hath bought thee? hath he not made thee, and established thee?

Isaiah 63
16Doubtless thou art our father, though Abraham be ignorant of us, and Israel acknowledge us not: thou, O LORD, art our father, our redeemer; thy name is from everlasting.

Isaiah 64
8But now, O LORD, thou art our father; we are the clay, and thou our potter; and we all are the work of thy hand.

Malachi 2
10Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers?
You skipped right over Apostle John's verses like they did not exist. What about addressing them?

As for your verses, since God is Trinitarian I have no problem with saying that God is the Father, as well as the Son (which the Book of John confirms in no uncertain terms).
 
You skipped right over Apostle John's verses like they did not exist. What about addressing them?

As for your verses, since God is Trinitarian I have no problem with saying that God is the Father, as well as the Son (which the Book of John confirms in no uncertain terms).
Do you believe the Bible is consistent in what it says?
 
That person is either ignorant or blind.

The proof of Jesus is YHWH/Jehovah and Adonai has always been under everyone's nose. The name Lord comes directly from κυριος as written in the Greek OT (Septuagint), and that in turn comes directly from YHWH/Jehovah and Adonai as written in the Hebrew text.

The Apostles followed the Septuagint and called Jesus κυριος (Lord) which is the Greek name for YHWH and Adonai. They did not use the name "Lord" (κυριος) for anyone besides Jesus and God the Father in the New Testament. While κυριος could be used culturally as a term of respect or authority, the Apostles specifically used "Lord" (κυριος) to indicate divine authority, reverence, or worship when referring to Jesus or God the Father.

For example, Peter addresses Jesus as "Lord" (κυριος) with the understanding of His divine nature, particularly after Jesus' resurrection (Acts 2:36). Similarly, "Lord"(κυριος) is also used in prayers addressed to God the Father (as in Acts 4:24). The Apostles reserve this title, in its spiritual sense, for the divine alone, and there is no record of them calling any other human "Lord" in the same way as they did for Jesus and the Father.

As if that wasn't enough, Jesus explicitly declared himself "I Am" (John 8:58), the very name of the OT God (Ex 3:14). Also, John declared the Word (the Preincarnate Jesus) in John 1:1 as being God, translated from θεὸς in Greek and from Elohim in Hebrew.
Calling someone Lord is not a teaching that we should believe or confess that Jesus is God. And at the last super, the disciples were trying to find out who would deny the Christ. They said literally, "Not I am, Lord" Matthew 26:22, 25. No one would say the disciples were trying to deny they were God because they were using the phrase "Not I am." "I am" was a common way of designating oneself and it did not mean you were claiming to be God. The argument is made that because Jesus was "before" Abraham, Jesus must be God. Jesus figuratively existed in Abraham's time. He did not actually physically exist as a person, but rather he existed in the mind of God as God's plan for the redemption of man. In order for the Trinitarian argument that Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 makes him God, his statement must be equivalent with God's "I am" statement in Exodus 3:14. The two statements are very different. The Greek phrase in John does mean "I am." The Hebrew phrase in Exodus means "to be" or "to become." God was saying "I will be what I will be."
 
Calling someone Lord is not a teaching that we should believe or confess that Jesus is God. And at the last super, the disciples were trying to find out who would deny the Christ. They said literally, "Not I am, Lord" Matthew 26:22, 25. No one would say the disciples were trying to deny they were God because they were using the phrase "Not I am." "I am" was a common way of designating oneself and it did not mean you were claiming to be God. The argument is made that because Jesus was "before" Abraham, Jesus must be God. Jesus figuratively existed in Abraham's time. He did not actually physically exist as a person, but rather he existed in the mind of God as God's plan for the redemption of man. In order for the Trinitarian argument that Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 makes him God, his statement must be equivalent with God's "I am" statement in Exodus 3:14. The two statements are very different. The Greek phrase in John does mean "I am." The Hebrew phrase in Exodus means "to be" or "to become." God was saying "I will be what I will be."
1 Kings 12:22 and 1 Ch 17:3 clearly show that the Pre-Incarnate Word of God did not just "exist in the mind of God". He was a Communicative Person who had all the attributes of a Person (Mind, Will, Individuality, etc...).
  • 1 Kings 12:22 "But the Word of God came to Shemaiah the man of God, saying,"
  • 1 Ch 17:3 "And it happened the same night the Word of God came to Nathan, saying,
This obviously proves that the Word of God (Jesus), who is Uncreated (John 1:3), cannot possibly be just a figure or just a thought. He is God.
 
1 Kings 12:22 and 1 Ch 17:3 clearly show that the Pre-Incarnate Word of God did not just "exist in the mind of God". He was a Communicative Person who had all the attributes of a Person (Mind, Will, Individuality, etc...).
  • 1 Kings 12:22 "But the Word of God came to Shemaiah the man of God, saying,"
  • 1 Ch 17:3 "And it happened the same night the Word of God came to Nathan, saying,
This obviously proves that the Word of God (Jesus), who is Uncreated (John 1:3), cannot possibly be just a figure or just a thought. He is God.
How do you get Jesus is God out of 1 Kings 12:22? God giving revelation to a Prophet is often written in the Old Testament as "the word of God" because they are the words from God.

1 Kings 12:22
22 But the word of God came unto Shemaiah the man of God, saying,
 
How do you get Jesus is God out of 1 Kings 12:22? God giving revelation to a Prophet is often written in the Old Testament as "the word of God" because they are the words from God.

1 Kings 12:22
22 But the word of God came unto Shemaiah the man of God, saying,
Since when does a thought appear before a person and make its presence felt by talking and saying words to a person? You must be smoking some strong weed to witness thoughts doing that to people.
 
Since when does a thought appear before a person and make its presence felt by talking and saying words to a person? You must be smoking some strong weed to witness thoughts doing that to people.
I was resting on my bed an hour ago when the word of the Lord came unto me saying why don't you spend more money on advertising? And I'm not God.
 
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