MTMattie
Active Member
That was not the point Jesus was making. Jesus was speaking of seeing the Father in the same sense as the disciples had seen the Father in John 14:6. This is why John 1:18 explicitly states no one has seen (with their eyes) God Himself, not even Jesus, but rather Jesus declared Him.
Bull. Always an excuse when you are dead wrong.
The verse below means that they hadn't known the Father or seen Him prior to Jesus saying that, contrary to them already being with Jesus that whole time. What Jesus was talking about by knowing and seeing the Father was not about what they could see visually with their eyes because they had already been looking at Jesus for years already. What Jesus meant by "seeing" the Father was in the figurative sense. "Blind" versus "seeing" is used in Biblical literature in a non-literal way sometimes because being blind and seeing refer to ignorance or knowing. It's possible to see visually Jesus without seeing the Father, but if you know Jesus then you know the Father.
John 14
6Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me. 7If you had known Me, you would know My Father as well. From now on you do know Him and have seen Him.”