The Bible does not teach to pray to Jesus

It's simply a grammatical construction where the subject of the sentence is the recipient of the action as opposed to the subject of the sentence being the doer of the action. This is one of the many ways we can make language comprehensible. Your losing war is against language and Scripture.

John 2:22 not being in the active voice is proof against your claims.
John does not have to state that Jesus was active in his resurrection in John 2:22. This does not exclude Jesus raising himself from the grave. The passive verb does not say someone else raised him, so you have no argument anymore.
 
John does not have to state that Jesus was active in his resurrection in John 2:22. This does not exclude Jesus raising himself from the grave. The passive verb does not say someone else raised him, so you have no argument anymore.
Yes John has to state that in the active voice if he wants others to believe that Jesus resurrected himself. His words are clear that he does not agree with you.
 
No. It is clear....

"I WILL RAISE IT AGAIN".....

Joh 2:19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
Then after that, the very same one who said "I will raise it again" is said to not be the one who raised himself in John 2:22. Grammar basics 101, Bible 101. It's because Jesus gave a prophecy. Should be clear.
 
You are too desperate to defend bad doctrine that you pretend what John 2:22 conveys so you think you can avoid repentance.
You're at the point of inferring John is a liar because you are desperate to keep your idol. You've already floated the idea that Jesus is a sinner and false prophet because he didn't raise himself from the dead. Anyone else say anything in prophecy that they didn't literally do? Are they all lying?
 
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