Your Views on The Trinity

I know the truth.

But your rational is not good. Why?

You say " you have no clue what the term " WITH" means in identifying the Godhead. ONE PERSON...."

It does not.

1 John 2:1 "My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:"

An advocate who may be one person does not mean one person joined with another to make one.

An advocate is someone who supports or promotes a cause, policy, or the interests of a group, often by speaking or writing in favor of it. In a legal context, an advocate is a professional who represents and defends clients in court.

1 John 2:1 means that when we sin we have an advocate (Jesus, who is defending us) with the Father.... That advocate is Jesus Christ the righteous:"

You are correct Jesus is God and is 1/3 of the Godhead... but they are not one. The Godhead is 3. They are ECHAD
Isaiah 44:6 "Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God." me is one person, now this same one person.

Isaiah 44:8 "Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any."

me and I is one person, "God", and God, the one person said he don't know any ... one or ... two beside him.... NOW HEAR THIS, "WITH" is synonyms to "beside"...... HELLO. are the light bulbs on?

did you UNDERSTAND? there is no one ..... "WITH" or "BESIDE" him, the one person GOD.

we don't need to draw any pictures? this is common sense deduction in reasoning.
So then, how does “echad” directly relate to Christ and His ekklesia (as it plainly does to a marriage with a husband and wife becoming one-flesh)?
101G say IDENTICAL ONE..... now is the wife IDENTICAL to the husband as ONE? no, but JESUS is..... understand the difference, from the Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words IDENTICAL. see Echad identify a numerical difference as one, in the Godhead that numerical difference is the same sort. listen to the Greek word that identifies the ECHAD of God in the term ANOTHER, LISTEN and LEARN.
[ 1,,G243 G2087 ,allos heteros ] have a difference in meaning, which despite a tendency to be lost, is to be observed in numerous passages. Allos expresses a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort;" heteros expresses a qualitative difference and denotes "another of a different sort."

now MT is the wife the same sort as the HUSBAND?
SORT according to Dictionary.com noun
1. a particular kind, species, variety, class, or group, distinguished by a common character or nature:
Synonyms: nature, character, rank, order, family, class

2. character, quality, or nature:

now MT .... is the wife nature is EXACTLY as the husband...... (smile) think before you answer. ....😇

can't wait to hear you answer.......... then you will Know the difference of the ECHAD in quantity and quality concering the Godhead.

101G.
 
Isaiah 44:6 "Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God." me is one person, now this same one person.

Isaiah 44:8 "Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any."

me and I is one person, "God", and God, the one person said he don't know any ... one or ... two beside him.... NOW HEAR THIS, "WITH" is synonyms to "beside"...... HELLO. are the light bulbs on?

did you UNDERSTAND? there is no one ..... "WITH" or "BESIDE" him, the one person GOD.

we don't need to draw any pictures? this is common sense deduction in reasoning.

101G say IDENTICAL ONE..... now is the wife IDENTICAL to the husband as ONE? no, but JESUS is..... understand the difference, from the Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words IDENTICAL. see Echad identify a numerical difference as one, in the Godhead that numerical difference is the same sort. listen to the Greek word that identifies the ECHAD of God in the term ANOTHER, LISTEN and LEARN.
[ 1,,G243 G2087 ,allos heteros ] have a difference in meaning, which despite a tendency to be lost, is to be observed in numerous passages. Allos expresses a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort;" heteros expresses a qualitative difference and denotes "another of a different sort."

now MT is the wife the same sort as the HUSBAND?
SORT according to Dictionary.com noun
1. a particular kind, species, variety, class, or group, distinguished by a common character or nature:
Synonyms: nature, character, rank, order, family, class

2. character, quality, or nature:

now MT .... is the wife nature is EXACTLY as the husband...... (smile) think before you answer. ....😇

can't wait to hear you answer.......... then you will Know the difference of the ECHAD in quantity and quality concering the Godhead.

101G.
Nope.... I am done explaining for you do not understand why I differer and do not care to.

Have a good life and be blessed.

BTW... my answer is no.

Toodles
 
I'm curious why the Trinitarian religious leaders think this applies to everyone else but them? Why do the Trinitarian religious leaders believe the doctrine of devils (Ephesians 6:12 and 1 Timothy 4:1-2) applies to everyone who disagrees with them but not them? For too long Trinitarians controlled false Christianity with an iron fist suppressing and oppressing all who would dare challenge and oppose them.

1748481491754.jpeg
 
I'm curious why the Trinitarian religious leaders think this applies to everyone else but them? Why do the Trinitarian religious leaders believe the doctrine of devils (Ephesians 6:12 and 1 Timothy 4:1-2) applies to everyone who disagrees with them but not them? For too long Trinitarians controlled false Christianity with an iron fist suppressing and oppressing all who would dare challenge and oppose them.

View attachment 2010
Hmm. I suppose Peterlag speaks about the devils clearly identifying the divinity of Christ. I do not suspect that Paul would be saying that the sharing of the nature of Christ is something reasonable to avoid though.
 
I'm curious why the Trinitarian religious leaders think this applies to everyone else but them? Why do the Trinitarian religious leaders believe the doctrine of devils (Ephesians 6:12 and 1 Timothy 4:1-2) applies to everyone who disagrees with them but not them? For too long Trinitarians controlled false Christianity with an iron fist suppressing and oppressing all who would dare challenge and oppose them.

View attachment 2010
This could apply to all anti-trinitarians. Thanks for pointing it out
 
The New Testament has eight writers who penned twenty-seven books and many of them were eyewitnesses that personally knew Jesus and were in his presence when he taught.

None of them ever said "Jesus is God."

People today say it as if it's written... but it's not.

The ones who knew Jesus who ate with him and heard his teaching never heard "Jesus is God."

There are forty-two Scripture verses that say Jesus is the "son of God."

There are eighty-eight Scripture verses that say Jesus is the "son of man."

There are two-hundred and fifty-nine Scripture verses that refer to Jesus as the "Christ."

There are zero Scripture verses that say "Jesus is God."
 
Nope.... I am done explaining for you do not understand why I differer and do not care to.

Have a good life and be blessed.

BTW... my answer is no.

Toodles
GINOLJC, to all
so then ...... we can take your answer as YOU REJECT THE SCRIPTURES. good, see ya, 101G hope.... :love:

101G.
 
The New Testament has eight writers who penned twenty-seven books and many of them were eyewitnesses that personally knew Jesus and were in his presence when he taught.

None of them ever said "Jesus is God."

People today say it as if it's written... but it's not.

The ones who knew Jesus who ate with him and heard his teaching never heard "Jesus is God."

There are forty-two Scripture verses that say Jesus is the "son of God."

There are eighty-eight Scripture verses that say Jesus is the "son of man."

There are two-hundred and fifty-nine Scripture verses that refer to Jesus as the "Christ."

There are zero Scripture verses that say "Jesus is God."
I am using the KJV ONLY because I do not wish to be challenged by anyone that my preferred translation is faulty.

I know that most anti-trin and Jesus is not God folks do not follow this one but it had been well established for centuries
so read it and then talk.

@Peterlag . What ( is that word really against the rules? It, at times would be worth being kicked off here to use it.) do you
interpret these as saying.

The New Testament has eight writers who penned twenty-seven books and many of them were eyewitnesses that personally knew Jesus and were in his presence when he taught.

None of them ever said "Jesus is God."

John 10:30 I and my Father are one.
Phil 2: 5-6, 5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
John 10: 33-38
33The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

34Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

35If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

36Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

37If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.

38But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.
Surly I do not have to repeat John 1;1 - 1;3 but Ill remind you.... "And the Word was God"
1 John 5:20 20And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
John 8: 22-24
22Then said the Jews, Will he kill himself? because he saith, Whither I go, ye cannot come.

23And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world.

24I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins.
Isaiah 44-6 Thus saith the Lord the King of Israel, and his redeemer the Lord of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.
Acts 7:59-60
59;And they stoned Stephen, calling upon God, and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.

6;And he kneeled down, and cried with a loud voice, Lord, lay not this sin to their charge. And when he had said this, he fell asleep.

John 20:
27Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.

28And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
2 Peter 1:1 1Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ


 
I am using the KJV ONLY because I do not wish to be challenged by anyone that my preferred translation is faulty.

I know that most anti-trin and Jesus is not God folks do not follow this one but it had been well established for centuries
so read it and then talk.

@Peterlag . What ( is that word really against the rules? It, at times would be worth being kicked off here to use it.) do you
interpret these as saying.



John 10:30 I and my Father are one.
Phil 2: 5-6, 5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
John 10: 33-38
33The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

34Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

35If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

36Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

37If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.

38But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.
Surly I do not have to repeat John 1;1 - 1;3 but Ill remind you.... "And the Word was God"
1 John 5:20 20And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
John 8: 22-24
22Then said the Jews, Will he kill himself? because he saith, Whither I go, ye cannot come.

23And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world.

24I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins.
Isaiah 44-6 Thus saith the Lord the King of Israel, and his redeemer the Lord of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.
Acts 7:59-60
59;And they stoned Stephen, calling upon God, and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.

6;And he kneeled down, and cried with a loud voice, Lord, lay not this sin to their charge. And when he had said this, he fell asleep.

John 20:
27Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.

28And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
2 Peter 1:1 1Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ
We can discuss the above Scripture one at a time if you would enjoy doing so. Do you think it's possible that I might be right with the following...

“My Lord and my God.” A very likely way to understand John 20:28 is that Thomas had realized the power of God working in Jesus, and in saying “my Lord and my God” he was pointing out that Jesus did reveal God in a unique and powerful way. In seeing the resurrected Jesus, Thomas clearly saw both the Lord Jesus, and the God who raised Jesus from the dead. Jesus always taught that he only did what God guided him to do, and said that if you had seen him you had seen the Father. In that light, there is good evidence that “doubting Thomas” was saying that in seeing Jesus he was also seeing the Father.

We have to remember that Thomas’ statement occurred in a moment of surprise and even perhaps shock. Only eight days earlier, Thomas had vehemently denied Jesus’ resurrection. Thomas could no longer deny that Jesus was alive and that God had raised him from the dead. Thomas, looking at the living Jesus, saw both Jesus and the God who raised him from the dead. When Thomas saw the resurrected Christ, he became immediately convinced that Jesus was raised from the dead. But did he suddenly have a revelation that Jesus was God? That would be totally outside of Thomas’ knowledge and belief. Jesus had never claimed to be God despite Trinitarian claims that he had.

In other places in the Bible where the apostles speak about the resurrection of Jesus, they do not declare “This proves Jesus is God!” Rather, they declare that God raised the Lord Jesus from the dead. The confession of the two disciples walking along the road to Emmaus demonstrated the thoughts of Jesus’ followers at the time. Speaking to the resurrected Christ, whom they mistook as just a traveler, they talked about Jesus. They said Jesus “was a prophet mighty in deed and word before God and they crucified him." The disciples thought Jesus was the Messiah, a “Prophet” and the Son of God, but not God Himself.

Are we to believe that somehow Jesus taught the Trinity, something that went against everything the disciples were taught and believed, but there is no mention of Jesus ever teaching it anywhere, and yet the disciples somehow got that teaching? That seems too incredible to believe. There is no evidence from the gospel accounts that Jesus’ disciples believed him to be God, and Thomas upon seeing the resurrected Christ was not birthing a new theology in a moment of surprise.
 
We can discuss the above Scripture one at a time if you would enjoy doing so. Do you think it's possible that I might be right with the following...

“My Lord and my God.” A very likely way to understand John 20:28 is that Thomas had realized the power of God working in Jesus, and in saying “my Lord and my God” he was pointing out that Jesus did reveal God in a unique and powerful way. In seeing the resurrected Jesus, Thomas clearly saw both the Lord Jesus, and the God who raised Jesus from the dead. Jesus always taught that he only did what God guided him to do, and said that if you had seen him you had seen the Father. In that light, there is good evidence that “doubting Thomas” was saying that in seeing Jesus he was also seeing the Father.

We have to remember that Thomas’ statement occurred in a moment of surprise and even perhaps shock. Only eight days earlier, Thomas had vehemently denied Jesus’ resurrection. Thomas could no longer deny that Jesus was alive and that God had raised him from the dead. Thomas, looking at the living Jesus, saw both Jesus and the God who raised him from the dead. When Thomas saw the resurrected Christ, he became immediately convinced that Jesus was raised from the dead. But did he suddenly have a revelation that Jesus was God? That would be totally outside of Thomas’ knowledge and belief. Jesus had never claimed to be God despite Trinitarian claims that he had.

In other places in the Bible where the apostles speak about the resurrection of Jesus, they do not declare “This proves Jesus is God!” Rather, they declare that God raised the Lord Jesus from the dead. The confession of the two disciples walking along the road to Emmaus demonstrated the thoughts of Jesus’ followers at the time. Speaking to the resurrected Christ, whom they mistook as just a traveler, they talked about Jesus. They said Jesus “was a prophet mighty in deed and word before God and they crucified him." The disciples thought Jesus was the Messiah, a “Prophet” and the Son of God, but not God Himself.

Are we to believe that somehow Jesus taught the Trinity, something that went against everything the disciples were taught and believed, but there is no mention of Jesus ever teaching it anywhere, and yet the disciples somehow got that teaching? That seems too incredible to believe. There is no evidence from the gospel accounts that Jesus’ disciples believed him to be God, and Thomas upon seeing the resurrected Christ was not birthing a new theology in a moment of surprise.
Okay, From a card carrying 100% believer in the Holy Trinity of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit I will qualify to potential of
some of the verses being able to be read in differing ways... Such as poor Thomas, who I am certain never thought his name would be so discussed .

I do not think that Thomas had the Father in mind at all once Jesus showed His hands and told Thomas to put His fingers
where the wounds were.

I am certain that that alone made Thomas call Jesus My Lord and My God. For who else did Thomas know was crucified to the point of bleeding out, cause you know He was, and then came and stood in front of Him.

I also do not think that every thing Jesus talked to the Apostles about made it into the scriptures.

I am sure they had things told to them that were private and they were told to keep them private.

Look at John 21:25 And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen.

If the bible were written to teach and educate people, and if the "big" test of who will make it (salvation) was to be based on Faith,
which I happen to believe then no specifics about what we each see as truth when we each read the same words will sway the other because I firmly believe God offers.... Through reading, through worshipping, through Jesus' words and through the words of those who wrote the bible ... and it is up to us to accept.

You and I will never agree.

But when you say there is no where that says Jesus is God. I see it clear as day. You do not.
 
Okay, From a card carrying 100% believer in the Holy Trinity of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit I will qualify to potential of
some of the verses being able to be read in differing ways... Such as poor Thomas, who I am certain never thought his name would be so discussed .

I do not think that Thomas had the Father in mind at all once Jesus showed His hands and told Thomas to put His fingers
where the wounds were.

I am certain that that alone made Thomas call Jesus My Lord and My God. For who else did Thomas know was crucified to the point of bleeding out, cause you know He was, and then came and stood in front of Him.

I also do not think that every thing Jesus talked to the Apostles about made it into the scriptures.

I am sure they had things told to them that were private and they were told to keep them private.

Look at John 21:25 And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen.

If the bible were written to teach and educate people, and if the "big" test of who will make it (salvation) was to be based on Faith,
which I happen to believe then no specifics about what we each see as truth when we each read the same words will sway the other because I firmly believe God offers.... Through reading, through worshipping, through Jesus' words and through the words of those who wrote the bible ... and it is up to us to accept.

You and I will never agree.

But when you say there is no where that says Jesus is God. I see it clear as day. You do not.
Let's look at the first verse you posted...

John 10:30
There is no reason to take this verse to mean that Christ was saying that he and the Father make up "one God." The phrase was a common one, and even today if someone used it, people would know exactly what they meant... he and his Father are very much alike. When Paul wrote to the Corinthians about his ministry there, he said that he had planted the seed and Apollos had watered it. Then he said, "... he who plants and he who waters are one..." (1 Corinthians 3:8 NKJV). In the Greek texts, the wording of Paul is the same as that in John 10:30, yet no one claims that Paul and Apollos make up "one being." Christ uses the concept of "being one" in other places, and from them one can see that "one purpose" is what is meant. John 11:52 says Jesus was to die to make all God's children "one." In John 17:11, 21 and 22, Jesus prayed to God that his followers would be "one" as he and God were "one." I think it's obvious that Jesus was not praying that all his followers would become one being in "substance" just as he and his Father were one being or "substance." I believe the meaning is clear: Jesus was praying that all his followers be one in purpose just as he and God were one in purpose.
 
The clearest reference to Jesus’ deity in the New Testament comes at the opening of John’s gospel. It reads, “In the beginning was the Word [that is, the Logos], and the Word was with God, and the Word was God” . In that first sentence, we see the mystery of the Trinity, because the Logos is said to have been with God from the beginning.
 
Let's look at the first verse you posted...

John 10:30
There is no reason to take this verse to mean that Christ was saying that he and the Father make up "one God." The phrase was a common one, and even today if someone used it, people would know exactly what they meant... he and his Father are very much alike. When Paul wrote to the Corinthians about his ministry there, he said that he had planted the seed and Apollos had watered it. Then he said, "... he who plants and he who waters are one..." (1 Corinthians 3:8 NKJV). In the Greek texts, the wording of Paul is the same as that in John 10:30, yet no one claims that Paul and Apollos make up "one being." Christ uses the concept of "being one" in other places, and from them one can see that "one purpose" is what is meant. John 11:52 says Jesus was to die to make all God's children "one." In John 17:11, 21 and 22, Jesus prayed to God that his followers would be "one" as he and God were "one." I think it's obvious that Jesus was not praying that all his followers would become one being in "substance" just as he and his Father were one being or "substance." I believe the meaning is clear: Jesus was praying that all his followers be one in purpose just as he and God were one in purpose.
I'll take it under asvisement.
 
I'll take it under asvisement.
Philippians 2:6 is also on your list which is not a teaching on the trinity or that we should confess or believe that Jesus is God. After saying that Christ was in the form of God, Philippians 2:6 goes on to say that Christ “considered being equal with God not something to be grasped at.” If Jesus were God, then it would make no sense at all to say that he did not “grasp” at equality with God because no one grasps at equality with himself. Some Trinitarians say, “Well, he was not grasping for equality with the Father.” That is not what the verse says. It says Christ did not grasp at equality with God, which makes the verse nonsense if he were God.

The Greek word morphē does not refer to the essential nature of Christ in that context. If the point of the verse is to say that Jesus is God, then why not just say that? If Jesus is God, say that, don’t say he has the “essential nature of God.” Of course God has the “essential nature” of God, so why would anyone make that point? This verse does not say “Jesus being God” but rather “being in the form of God.” Paul is reminding the Philippians that Jesus represented the Father in every possible way.

From the Septuagint and their other writings, the Jews were familiar with morphē referring to the outward appearance, including the form of men and idols. To the Greeks, it also referred to the outward appearance, including the changing outward appearance of their gods and the form of statues. The only other New Testament use of morphē outside Philippians is in Mark, and there it refers to the outward appearance. Also, the words related to morphē clearly refer to an outward manifestation or appearance. The word morphē refers to an outward appearance or manifestation. Jesus Christ was in the outward appearance of God, so much so that he said, “He who has seen me has seen the Father.” Christ always did the Father’s will, and perfectly represented his Father in every way.
 
Jesus said “…the Father is greater than I”(John 14:28).

In contrast, the orthodox formula of the Trinity says the Father and the Son are “co-equal.” Jesus prayed to God “not my will, but yours, be done” because Jesus and God have separate wills (Luke 22:42; John 5:30). They would have one will if Jesus and the Father are the same “one God.” Trinitarian doctrine claims that Luke is referring to the human will of Jesus, and not his divine will, but that is problematic because the Bible never says anything like that or even hints that Jesus had two wills in conflict with each other inside him allowing one to be human and the other to be divine.
 
Jesus said “…the Father is greater than I”(John 14:28).

In contrast, the orthodox formula of the Trinity says the Father and the Son are “co-equal.” Jesus prayed to God “not my will, but yours, be done” because Jesus and God have separate wills (Luke 22:42; John 5:30). They would have one will if Jesus and the Father are the same “one God.” Trinitarian doctrine claims that Luke is referring to the human will of Jesus, and not his divine will, but that is problematic because the Bible never says anything like that or even hints that Jesus had two wills in conflict with each other inside him allowing one to be human and the other to be divine.
It depends how they work within the Godhead. Maybe Peterlag is a specialist with private knowledge of how a godhead would work when one is speaking in an incarnated situation.
 
Most classical Christians will affirm that the Bible must ground and structure our understanding of God. I presuppose that the Trinity as revealed in the Bible accurately represents the finite creation of who and what God is but, at the same time, the Trinity is by no means all that is God

So who is God?

Thinking correctly about God is of utmost importance because a false idea about God is idolatry. In Psalm 50:21, God reproves the wicked man with this accusation: “You thought I was altogether like you.” To start with, a good summary definition of God is “the Supreme Being; the Creator and Ruler of all that is; the Self-existent One who is perfect in power, goodness, and wisdom.”

The main thing for us to know is that God loves us.

“For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.”
John 3:16

God gave the life of His own Son for us. What does that say about how much He loves us?

The phrase "God is love" is a central tenet in Christianity, found in 1 John 1:8. It signifies that love isn't just one of God's attributes, but it's the essence of his being. This understanding emphasizes that God's love is not simply a feeling, but a core aspect of who He is.

13. By this we know that we abide in him and he in us, because he has given us of his Spirit. 14. And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world. 15. Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God, God abides in him, and he in God. 16. So we have come to know and to believe the love that God has for us. God is love, and whoever abides in love abides in God, and God abides in him. 17. By this is love perfected with us, so that we may have confidence for the day of judgment, because as he is so also are we in this world. 18. There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear. For fear has to do with punishment, and whoever fears has not been perfected in love. 19. We love because he first loved us. 20. If anyone says, “I love God,” and hates his brother, he is a liar; for he who does not love his brother whom he has seen cannot love God whom he has not seen. 21. And this commandment we have from him: whoever loves God must also love his brother.
1 John 4:13-21
 
Jesus said “…the Father is greater than I”(John 14:28).

In contrast, the orthodox formula of the Trinity says the Father and the Son are “co-equal.” Jesus prayed to God “not my will, but yours, be done” because Jesus and God have separate wills (Luke 22:42; John 5:30). They would have one will if Jesus and the Father are the same “one God.” Trinitarian doctrine claims that Luke is referring to the human will of Jesus, and not his divine will, but that is problematic because the Bible never says anything like that or even hints that Jesus had two wills in conflict with each other inside him allowing one to be human and the other to be divine.
And the husband is greater then the wife, yet still one flesh
 
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