After you quoted the Greek, you said: "
does not inherently specify whether it was before or after the calling"...
Well Johann, our English bible
is clear..... salvation in
the eternal sense is
before the calling forth of God's children out of darkness into the light of the glorious truths of God. Grace was
freely given to God's very elect
according to God eternal purpose, God's grace was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began.
Question for you to answer: How do you think God was a friend of Abraham "
before" Christ ever died for him. God went to his heathen country and called Abraham
alone (Isaiah 51:2) because grace and mercy was freely given to him in and through Jesus Christ
before God ever created this world and certainly before Abraham ever did good or evil. Have you ever read any subject addressing
eternal justification. Justification is used in more than one sense in the scriptures which is very clear to see.
https://www.libcfl.com/articles/brine.htm https://www.pristinegrace.org/article.php?id=354 You said:
"
The structure does not explicitly indicate that salvation occurred before calling. In Greek, when two aorist participles are used in sequence, they can either denote events occurring at the same time or events in logical order, but context determines this."
Well, Johann, "context" is against you using the Greek and the overall scriptures when taken as a cohesive whole is against your strong desire to use anything but what the scriptures are actually saying. We were saved, THEN CALLED..."Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling"
The Function of Aorist Participles in 2 Timothy 1:9
Your argument claims that the two aorist active participles (σώσαντος and καλέσαντος) necessarily indicate a temporal sequence in which salvation is first and calling follows. However, Greek grammar does not support such a rigid reading.
Aorist participles generally denote completed action relative to the main verb, but they do not inherently establish a strict sequence unless the context demands it.
In 2 Timothy 1:9, both σώσαντος ("having saved") and καλέσαντος ("having called") are dependent on ἔδωκεν ("has given"), showing that both salvation and calling are aspects of God's grace that was given in Christ πρὸ χρόνων αἰωνίων ("before time eternal").
The participles should be understood as describing a single act of divine grace rather than two temporally distinct events.
This is a common construction in Greek where multiple aorist participles function together to describe one comprehensive action. The same pattern appears in Titus 3:5:
"Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us (ἔσωσεν ἡμᾶς), by the washing of regeneration (διὰ λουτροῦ παλινγενεσίας) and renewing of the Holy Ghost."
Here, salvation (ἔσωσεν) is explained by regeneration and renewal, showing that salvation involves a process that includes calling. Similarly, in 2 Timothy 1:9, salvation and calling are linked as aspects of God's redemptive work.
2. The Logical Order of Salvation and Calling in Scripture
Your argument asserts that salvation (in the eternal sense) precedes calling and justification, appealing to a deterministic interpretation of divine grace. However, key passages contradict this claim:
Romans 8:30 ("Golden Chain of Redemption")
"Whom he predestinated, them he also called; and whom he called, them he also justified; and whom he justified, them he also glorified."
Here, calling precedes justification, making it impossible to argue
for eternal justification before calling.
If justification were an eternal reality before calling, why does Paul place calling first?
Acts 2:39
"For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call."
The promise of salvation is realized in the calling.
If eternal justification were already established, there would be no need for calling.
2 Thessalonians 2:13-14
"But we are bound to give thanks always to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth: Whereunto he called you by our gospel, to the obtaining of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ."
Salvation is "through sanctification and belief of the truth" and is realized through
calling by the gospel.
Thus, Scripture teaches that calling is the means by which salvation is applied to the believer in time, rather than salvation being a completed reality before calling.
3. The Theological Error of "Eternal Justification"
Your claim that justification occurred before time contradicts the biblical teaching that
justification is applied at the moment of faith.
Romans 5:1:
"Being therefore justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." Justification is by faith,
not an eternal decree apart from faith.
Galatians 2:16
: "A man is not justified by the works of the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ." Again, justification happens in time as a response to faith.
If justification were eternal, faith would be unnecessary.
Yet, Paul consistently teaches that faith is the means by which justification is received.
4. Misuse of Isaiah 51:2 (Abraham)
The claim that Abraham was justified before Christ’s death because he was chosen and called (Isaiah 51:2) does not support eternal justification.
Romans 4:3 explicitly states:
"Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness."
Abraham was not justified before his calling but at the moment of faith. His justification was reckoned to him in time, not eternally.
Furthermore, Galatians 3:8 states:
"And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed."
Justification is tied to faith, not an eternal decree independent of faith.
Conclusion
The Greek grammar of 2 Timothy 1:9 does not establish a rigid temporal sequence proving salvation occurred before calling. Rather, both participles describe the single divine act of God's grace.
The "golden chain" of Romans 8:30 shows that calling precedes justification, refuting eternal justification.
Justification is consistently presented in Scripture as occurring at the moment of faith, not in eternity past.
The appeal to Abraham (Isaiah 51:2) does not support eternal justification, since
Abraham was justified by faith in time (Romans 4:3, Galatians 3:8).
Thus-your argument for eternal justification misinterprets both Greek syntax and biblical theology.
Salvation is planned in eternity but applied in time through calling, faith, and justification.
So, when I read Acts 2:38, this is how I read it, just as God intended for us to do so:
Acts 2:38
“Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.”
For, meaning because of, not in order to obtain! Peter, a man of God understood the evidence of a child of God, and one being a since desire to do what God commands them to do ~ and once he saw that their hearts were truly pricked, he told them what to do. The gift of the holy Ghost was the gift of KNOWLEDGE of knowing that he indwelt all who are believers, power there waiting for them to tap into.
Acts 2:37 – "Pricked in Their Heart" (κατενύγησαν τὴν καρδίαν)
The Greek word κατανύσσω (katanyssō) means "to pierce thoroughly" or "to agitate violently."
This describes deep conviction brought about by the Holy Spirit (John 16:8:
"He will convict the world of sin, righteousness, and judgment").
Nowhere does the text indicate that those pricked were already regenerate. Instead, their question,
"What shall we do?" shows they had not yet responded in faith.
Acts 7:54 – "Cut to the Heart" (διεπρίοντο ταῖς καρδίαις)
The Greek word διαπρίω (diapriō) means "to saw through" or "to be infuriated."
This describes a reaction of anger rather than repentance, similar to Acts 5:33, where the Sanhedrin was also "cut to the heart" and sought to kill the apostles.
Their reaction was hostility, proving that conviction does not always lead to repentance but depends on one's response to the Spirit.
Both groups experienced conviction, but one group responded with repentance (Acts 2), while the other responded with rage (Acts 7).
There is no grammatical or theological basis for claiming that pricked in the heart = already regenerate and cut to the heart = unregenerate.
Rather, conviction precedes faith and repentance (John 16:8-9).
2. Acts 2:38 – "For" (εἰς) Does Not Mean "Because Of"
Here your argument claims that "for the remission of sins" (εἰς ἄφεσιν ἁμαρτιῶν) in Acts 2:38 means
"because of" remission of sins rather than
"in order to obtain" remission. This claim is grammatically and contextually
incorrect.
The Greek Preposition "εἰς" (eis)
The word εἰς ("for") in Greek always expresses movement into or toward something.
It never means "because of" in any unambiguous use.
The phrase εἰς ἄφεσιν ἁμαρτιῶν ("for the remission of sins") is identical to Matthew 26:28:
"This is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many εἰς ἄφεσιν ἁμαρτιῶν."
Did Jesus shed His blood because sins were already forgiven? No. He shed it for the purpose of remission of sins.
Contextual Meaning of Acts 2:38
Peter was answering the question,
"What shall we do?" (Acts 2:37).
If their sins were already remitted, Peter’s instruction to
"repent and be baptized for the remission of sins" would be meaningless.
The connection between repentance, baptism, and remission follows the same pattern as Luke 24:47:
"That repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations."
Repentance leads to remission of sins, not because of it.
The preposition εἰς never means
"because of" in this construction. The parallel with Matthew 26:28 and Luke 24:47 confirms that remission of sins is the result of repentance and baptism,
not the cause of them.
3. The Meaning of the "Gift of the Holy Ghost"
And here-your argument claims that "the gift of the Holy Ghost" in Acts 2:38 refers to a knowledge that He already indwelt them rather than the actual reception of the Spirit. This is incorrect.
Greek Grammar and Context
The phrase τὴν δωρεὰν τοῦ Ἁγίου Πνεύματος (
"the gift of the Holy Ghost") is an objective genitive,
meaning that the Holy Spirit Himself is the gift.
This is consistent with Acts 10:45, where "the gift of the Holy Ghost" (same phrase) refers to the Spirit coming upon Cornelius and his household.
The Spirit is received at conversion (Acts 19:2; Ephesians 1:13-14).
The Purpose of the Gift
The Spirit is given as a seal and indwelling presence (Ephesians 1:13; Romans 8:9).
The Spirit empowers believers
, but He is more than just knowledge of His indwelling—He indwells them at conversion (John 7:37-39).
The phrase "gift of the Holy Ghost" refers to the Holy Spirit Himself as the gift,
not merely knowledge of His presence. The consistent usage in Acts shows that the Spirit is received at conversion, not something believers already have before repenting.
4. The Order of Salvation in Acts 2
Your argument assumes that the people in Acts 2
were already regenerate and that baptism was a sign of an existing reality. However, Peter’s sermon and the response show the following order:
Conviction (Pricked in their heart) → Shows they were not yet saved (Acts 2:37).
Repentance & Baptism → Necessary for remission of sins (Acts 2:38).
Reception of the Holy Spirit → Occurs after repentance and baptism (Acts 2:38).
Compare this with Acts 10:43-48, where:
Faith precedes baptism.
The Holy Spirit is received at the moment of faith.
Baptism follows as a response.
This shows that remission of sins happens at repentance and faith, not before.
Conclusion
The distinction between "pricked in their heart" and "cut to the heart" is
arbitrary. Futhermore-
conviction by the Spirit does not automatically mean regeneration. Some respond in repentance, others in anger.
Acts 2:38 cannot mean "because of" remission of sins. The Greek εἰς ἄφεσιν ἁμαρτιῶν means "for the purpose of" remission, as seen in Matthew 26:28 and Luke 24:47.
The "gift of the Holy Ghost" refers to receiving the Spirit Himself,
not just knowledge of His presence. The Spirit indwells believers at conversion.
The order in Acts 2 refutes your claim that these people were already regenerate. They heard, were convicted, repented, were baptized, and then received the Spirit.
This passage does not support a doctrine of regeneration preceding faith or repentance. Instead, it confirms that salvation is received through repentance and faith in Jesus Christ.
More than happy to keep this conversation going brother.
J.