Who was the Book of John Addressed to?

It seems pretty obvious that @jeremiah1five does not consider the NT to be scripture.
I hold the Hebrew Scripture as the foundation and the New Covenant writings if rightly interpreted is supported by the Hebrew Scripture. If there is no Old Testament precedence, then there can be no New Covenant reality. Gentiles put together the so-called New Testament. Had Israel accepted Jesus as their Messiah the New Covenant writings would be included with the Hebrew Scripture. But God is stretching out the Hebrew history for His own purpose otherwise He would have made the covenant with Abraham including both the Mosaic Law and New covenant together, but He didn't. He stretched it out through the centuries for His own purpose.

When Romans destroyed the Jewish Temple, they also attacked and killed Jews. Mixed-heritage Hebrews were spared (for the most part.) And because they grew up as Gentiles and heavily influenced by Greek culture (Hellenized) it was easy to unmoor true, biblical Christianity from its Hebrew roots as they were mostly Gentile and grew up Gentile. And this occurred for 15-20 generations of Jews that did not return with Nehemiah and the remnant (522 BC.) And so Jewish Christianity became a "Gentile" one with these mostly mixed heritage Hebrews who grew up Gentile heavily influenced by Greek culture and did not know their Hebrew Scriptures, so it was easy to continue as much as was possible for them and make Jewish Christianity into a Gentile one. But, there is no covenant in Hebrew Scripture between God and Gentiles. None. But if one who claims to be Gentile is born again, then there will have been at least ONE Hebrew parent in their ancestry for the Scripture declares the Abraham Covenant is with the Hebrew Abraham and his Hebrew seed - the children of Israel.

But if you can point to a covenant between God and Gentiles, I will consider it but it must be a covenant with intent and with covenant language as God has revealed with the Abraham, Mosaic, and New Covenants. IF there was a God-Gentile covenant then Gentiles would have their own prophets, and their own scripture. These are part of having covenant with God. It would mimic the Hebrew covenants and the Hebrew Scriptural histories. But there is none.
 
I hold the Hebrew Scripture as the foundation and the New Covenant writings if rightly interpreted is supported by the Hebrew Scripture. If there is no Old Testament precedence, then there can be no New Covenant reality. Gentiles put together the so-called New Testament. Had Israel accepted Jesus as their Messiah the New Covenant writings would be included with the Hebrew Scripture. But God is stretching out the Hebrew history for His own purpose otherwise He would have made the covenant with Abraham including both the Mosaic Law and New covenant together, but He didn't. He stretched it out through the centuries for His own purpose.

When Romans destroyed the Jewish Temple, they also attacked and killed Jews. Mixed-heritage Hebrews were spared (for the most part.) And because they grew up as Gentiles and heavily influenced by Greek culture (Hellenized) it was easy to unmoor true, biblical Christianity from its Hebrew roots as they were mostly Gentile and grew up Gentile. And this occurred for 15-20 generations of Jews that did not return with Nehemiah and the remnant (522 BC.) And so Jewish Christianity became a "Gentile" one with these mostly mixed heritage Hebrews who grew up Gentile heavily influenced by Greek culture and did not know their Hebrew Scriptures, so it was easy to continue as much as was possible for them and make Jewish Christianity into a Gentile one. But, there is no covenant in Hebrew Scripture between God and Gentiles. None. But if one who claims to be Gentile is born again, then there will have been at least ONE Hebrew parent in their ancestry for the Scripture declares the Abraham Covenant is with the Hebrew Abraham and his Hebrew seed - the children of Israel.

But if you can point to a covenant between God and Gentiles, I will consider it but it must be a covenant with intent and with covenant language as God has revealed with the Abraham, Mosaic, and New Covenants. IF there was a God-Gentile covenant then Gentiles would have their own prophets, and their own scripture. These are part of having covenant with God. It would mimic the Hebrew covenants and the Hebrew Scriptural histories. But there is none.
The last prophecy that you have was in about 400 BCE, i.e., about 2500 years ago. The best that you have is a promised savior. You cannot from your Covenant writings identify the promised messiah. You are still waiting for him to show up. Good luck with that.
 
First, the word "nations" does not mean Gentiles. For it is also used of Sarah in Gen. 17. So, tell me, how can "nations/Gentiles" be born from two Hebrew parents? They can't. Biologically impossible. It refers to the descendants that are Abraham's seed through Ishmael and Esau. It is also used in this way: Nation of Israel. Does this mean Israel is Gentile? No, it doesn't. Nor does it mean Gentile at the time it is used of Abraham and Sarah, two Hebrew parents who can only birth Hebrew children.
@jeremiah1five

Jeremiah, you do not understand scriptures, and you refused to allow the NT interpret the OT scriptures for you, by apostles, who were themselves Jews by nature! I'm going to be short since you have basically hijacked this thread, and that's what folks do when they have a one tracked mind that can only focus on things they want to push as their main agenda. You said:

"First, the word "nations" does not mean Gentiles."~The term Gentile doesn't really describe who someone is, but rather who they are nota Jew.

"For it is also used of Sarah in Gen. 17." Let us briefly look at Genesis 17. Please consider carefully these words:

Genesis 17:7​

“And I will establish my covenant between me and thee and thy seed after thee in their generations for an everlasting covenant, to be a God unto thee, and to thy seed after thee.”

You say seed here means..... the descendants that are Abraham's seed. You are going against Paul's teaching in Galatians 3.

Galatians 3:16​

“Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

The several promises to Abraham and his seed are in Genesis, recorded by Moses, but given 430 years before Sinai (Gen 12:7; 13:15-16; 15:5,13,18; 17:8-10,19; 21:12; 22:17-18; 24:7).

The great friend of God and covenant head who received terrific promises was Abraham. When read carefully and understood correctly, the promises were chiefly through Christ. Therefore, what Paul has said and will say about Gentiles being blessed in Abraham is based on the very wording of the Law that the you and the natural seed of Abraham take so much pride in! Yet reject the very person to whom the promises are through!

These promises are very specifically made to Abraham and his singular seed, which is Christ. Not to the Jewish people per se.

God’s promises were not to plural descendants through any of his eight sons, or certainly not Esau has you said ~ but rather in his singular descendant, Jesus Christ, in whom God had chosen all the elect in eternity.

Note Paul’s dogmatism about this wording, though he had used the plural children (3:7), which he will tie together neatly with the plural elect in the singular Christ shortly (3:29).

Every one of the promises should be understood spiritually first in Christ and His elect, from every nations under heaven who were not Jews by nature. (see Galatians 2:15 “We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles,”)

Jeremiah, any fulfillment in Israel is beggarly, carnal, inferior, and shadowy compared to Christ.

The two seeds – of Jews and Gentiles – are united in one seed spiritually in Christ (3:28).

This is glorious news for Gentiles, especially those being treated as inferior by Judaizers! This greatly despises Zionism, exalts the kingdom of Jesus Christ, and refutes Futurism.

So, which tribe were you born from?
Some things are not yet revelated and thereby we cannot particularly speak about, and based on Revelation seven, this is one of them for sure, but, in the world to come God will divide up that world for his people, and placed them in that world where He so desires us to be, much is hidden from us concerning this and the world to come!

1st John 3:2​

“Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.”

I'm finished for now, but would love to discuss this more, in another thread. Steart it, I'll come.
 
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I hold the Hebrew Scripture as the foundation and the New Covenant writings if rightly interpreted is supported by the Hebrew Scripture. If there is no Old Testament precedence, then there can be no New Covenant reality. Gentiles put together the so-called New Testament. Had Israel accepted Jesus as their Messiah the New Covenant writings would be included with the Hebrew Scripture. But God is stretching out the Hebrew history for His own purpose otherwise He would have made the covenant with Abraham including both the Mosaic Law and New covenant together, but He didn't. He stretched it out through the centuries for His own purpose.

When Romans destroyed the Jewish Temple, they also attacked and killed Jews. Mixed-heritage Hebrews were spared (for the most part.) And because they grew up as Gentiles and heavily influenced by Greek culture (Hellenized) it was easy to unmoor true, biblical Christianity from its Hebrew roots as they were mostly Gentile and grew up Gentile. And this occurred for 15-20 generations of Jews that did not return with Nehemiah and the remnant (522 BC.) And so Jewish Christianity became a "Gentile" one with these mostly mixed heritage Hebrews who grew up Gentile heavily influenced by Greek culture and did not know their Hebrew Scriptures, so it was easy to continue as much as was possible for them and make Jewish Christianity into a Gentile one. But, there is no covenant in Hebrew Scripture between God and Gentiles. None. But if one who claims to be Gentile is born again, then there will have been at least ONE Hebrew parent in their ancestry for the Scripture declares the Abraham Covenant is with the Hebrew Abraham and his Hebrew seed - the children of Israel.

But if you can point to a covenant between God and Gentiles, I will consider it but it must be a covenant with intent and with covenant language as God has revealed with the Abraham, Mosaic, and New Covenants. IF there was a God-Gentile covenant then Gentiles would have their own prophets, and their own scripture. These are part of having covenant with God. It would mimic the Hebrew covenants and the Hebrew Scriptural histories. But there is none.
Jeremiah, take this one post and make a thread, I want to comment on this, there're many things in post I would like to expose.
 
The last prophecy that you have was in about 400 BCE, i.e., about 2500 years ago. The best that you have is a promised savior. You cannot from your Covenant writings identify the promised messiah. You are still waiting for him to show up. Good luck with that.
Oh no, He already come. And gone. And will come again. But the Mosaic Covenant is dripping with references of Israel's Messiah found represented in the Tabernacle. Bread of Life, Light of the world, etc. And the religious leaders knew they were killing their Messiah for as Saul says, they were without excuse.
But I have been asking and no one can answer is where in the three Hebrew covenants does God include non-Hebrew Gentiles in any of the three Hebrew covenants. The reason no one can answer is because non-Hebrew Gentiles are NOT in any covenant with God. The best a "Gentile" can ask for is to have a Hebrew parent somewhere in their ancestry because the covenant is with Abraham and his seed and God keeps His promises.
 
@jeremiah1five

Jeremiah, you do not understand scriptures, and you refused to allow the NT interpret the OT scriptures for you, by apostles, who were themselves Jews by nature! I'm going to be short since you have basically hijacked this thread, and that's what folks do when they have a one tracked mind that can only focus on things they want to push as their main agenda. You said:

"First, the word "nations" does not mean Gentiles."~The term Gentile doesn't really describe who someone is, but rather who they are nota Jew.

"For it is also used of Sarah in Gen. 17." Let us briefly look at Genesis 17. Please consider carefully these words:

Genesis 17:7​

“And I will establish my covenant between me and thee and thy seed after thee in their generations for an everlasting covenant, to be a God unto thee, and to thy seed after thee.”

You say seed here means..... the descendants that are Abraham's seed. You are going against Paul's teaching in Galatians 3.

Galatians 3:16​

“Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

The several promises to Abraham and his seed are in Genesis, recorded by Moses, but given 430 years before Sinai (Gen 12:7; 13:15-16; 15:5,13,18; 17:8-10,19; 21:12; 22:17-18; 24:7).

The great friend of God and covenant head who received terrific promises was Abraham. When read carefully and understood correctly, the promises were chiefly through Christ. Therefore, what Paul has said and will say about Gentiles being blessed in Abraham is based on the very wording of the Law that the you and the natural seed of Abraham take so much pride in! Yet reject the very person to whom the promises are through!

These promises are very specifically made to Abraham and his singular seed, which is Christ. Not to the Jewish people per se.

God’s promises were not to plural descendants through any of his eight sons, or certainly not Esau has you said ~ but rather in his singular descendant, Jesus Christ, in whom God had chosen all the elect in eternity.

Note Paul’s dogmatism about this wording, though he had used the plural children (3:7), which he will tie together neatly with the plural elect in the singular Christ shortly (3:29).

Every one of the promises should be understood spiritually first in Christ and His elect, from every nations under heaven who were not Jews by nature. (see Galatians 2:15 “We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles,”)

Jeremiah, any fulfillment in Israel is beggarly, carnal, inferior, and shadowy compared to Christ.

The two seeds – of Jews and Gentiles – are united in one seed spiritually in Christ (3:28).

This is glorious news for Gentiles, especially those being treated as inferior by Judaizers! This greatly despises Zionism, exalts the kingdom of Jesus Christ, and refutes Futurism.


Some things are not yet revelated and thereby we cannot particularly speak about, and based on Revelation seven, this is one of them for sure, but, in the world to come God will divide up that world for his people, and placed them in that world where He so desires us to be, much is hidden from us concerning this and the world to come!

1st John 3:2​

“Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.”

I'm finished for now, but would love to discuss this more, in another thread. Steart it, I'll come.
I agree. The promise was singular: Isaac. And each generation of Israelite/Hebrew were inheritors of the promises. And this passed on for centuries until Christ Jesus would come. But although the paschal lamb was Jesus the promises were also wrapped up in the Holy Spirit of Promise which was never promised to non-Hebrew Gentiles, but to Israel (Joel.)

I don't have to start one. They are already there.
 
@MTMattie

Well, not easy to determine where to start and just how needs to be said to keep this post relatively short. So, here we go.

You do should know that election of grace, and predestination are two separate doctrines, even though many people speak of them as one doctrine, but they are not. But, where there is an election of God's grace, then God does indeed predestinate many factors concerning the life of his people whom he has chosen. Much he has chosen for us that He never consulted us about ~ our nation which we were born into, our parents, our genetic makeup, intelligent, siblings, and everything else you can think of, most was chosen for us by our God. This is God's predestination at work, the same is true of our Lord ~ his parents, them being poor, the vocation Joseph engage in, on and on we could go, this is God's predestination at work, not his election of grace.
Red, that is the false doctrine of determinism that is variously presented in so much of Calvinist/Reformed teaching. It is false. There is no indication whatsoever that God determined where you and I were born, who our parents are, our genetic makeup, siblings or anything at al about us. It is well presented that God foreknew all of that, but there is no indication that he caused any of it. What He did was create a system whereby all of those things happen according to natural law. That cannot in any way be identified as predestination. There were some identified exceptions to that in the scriptures; but even those were really few and far between.

But you are correct that predestination and election are two completely different and separate acts of God.

Determinism is the monstrous conflating of 99.9..........9% of the providential acts of God with the creative acts of God. I divide the acts, the works of God in relation to this physical creation into five categories. They are creation, general providence, special providence, miracles and redemption. One could separate them differently, I suppose; but these seem to me to be as good or better than most that I have come across.

By God's acts, works, of creation I mean His creation ex nihilo. Christian theology from the beginning has understood the origin of all things in terms of ex nihilo creation. Nihil is the Latin word for “nothing, nothingness,” and ex nihilo means literally “out of nothing.” Some have tried to objectify the “nothing” and make it into a “something.” They suggest that it was actually a kind of primal chaos of preexisting stuff, and that God simply brought it under his control. Such an idea is completely false. “Out of nothing” means “not out of anything.” It means that before creation there was nothing except God, and after creation there was also the universe which was not God but was absolutely distinct from God’s own being and existence.

By “providence” I mean God’s continuous activity of preserving and governing the universe by his knowledge, power, wisdom, and goodness, for the fulfillment of his purposes in creation. How does it differ from the work of creation? As explained above, the latter deals with the origin of the universe, to that singular activity by which in the beginning God brought the universe into existence. Providence, on the other hand, deals with the ongoing history of the universe, and to God’s continuing multiformed activity in it. God's providential work can be divided into two kinds, general providence and special providence.

By general providence I mean the acts which are God’s regular, uniform way of acting with respect to nature and human history. T. Even when God is not implementing his causative, purposive will in the course of history to accomplish his special purposes (e.g., redemption, judgment), he is constantly working to bring about his general purposes of sharing his goodness and displaying his glory. As Jesus testified, “My Father is working until now, and I Myself am working” (John 5:17). General providence is primarily the domain of God’s permissive will rather than his purposive will. Mere permission, however, is too limited a concept to adequately represent all of God’s activity in general providence. On the other hand causation, which applies to God’s purposive will, is too strong. Thus I will suggest that God’s work of general providence can best be characterized as participation. God actively participates in the ordinary events of the ongoing world in three ways: preservation, permission, and presence.

In the special providence of events we move beyond God’s permissive will into his purposive will. These are matters of special providence, which are things that happen not by unaided natural law and uninterrupted free will, but rather as a result of God’s special and specific intervention into these processes. They differ from miracles and spiritual events in that they do not involve any kind of violation or overriding of natural law and free will. In special providence God does manipulate natural law and influence free will choices, but he does not suspend or negate them. He thus causes results that would not have occurred without such intervention, but which are still within the possibilities of natural law itself and which do not violate the integrity of free will. The parting of the Red Sea is such an act of special providence. There are many other instances presented in the scriptures.

Next we have acts, works, of God in which He relates to the ongoing world, namely the miracles. In general providence God maintains permissive control over nature and history without intervening into their natural and free-will processes. In special providence he does intervene by redirecting the natural means already available in the world. But miracles are a step beyond special providence in the sense that God thereby overrides or bypasses or even violates natural laws, directly producing certain effects without any natural cause or means. As an act of God a miracle has three major characteristics. First, it is visible; that is, the effect that it produces is observable by our senses, such as a healed body, a floating axe head, or a dozen baskets full of loaves and fishes. This distinguishes miracles from the next category of events, spiritual events, wherein the cause is no less supernatural but the result as such is hidden from our eyes.

This last way God works in the world is through spiritual events. Like miracles these acts of God are outside the sphere of natural law, but unlike miracles they are invisible and hidden, not detectable by human senses. This is why I am calling them “spiritual” events. In many ways these are the most important and most powerful of God’s works in the world, without which none of the other works matter. This is true because these spiritual events have to do mainly with God’s great redemptive works and the salvation of sinners. They include God’s saving works accomplished for us through Jesus Christ, especially the incarnation, the atonement, and the defeat of death and Satan through the resurrection. They also include the saving works applied directly to us, especially the forgiveness of our sins, our regeneration through the Holy Spirit, and the Spirit’s indwelling to empower us for holy living. We may also include in this category the divine works of revelation and inspiration as worked in the hearts and minds of God’s apostles and prophets.

All of this is a very limited discussion of God's works and could be expanded greatly. But my point here is to rebut most of the false concept of determinism that envelops the teachings of Calvinism/Reformed Theology which is just plain wrong. Determinism has the added failure of conflating election for service, such as national Israel, with election for salvation. It is only in this last category of God's works associated with his creation, i.e., spiritual acts, that salvic election is even an issue.
 
Oh no, He already come. And gone. And will come again. But the Mosaic Covenant is dripping with references of Israel's Messiah found represented in the Tabernacle. Bread of Life, Light of the world, etc. And the religious leaders knew they were killing their Messiah for as Saul says, they were without excuse.
But I have been asking and no one can answer is where in the three Hebrew covenants does God include non-Hebrew Gentiles in any of the three Hebrew covenants. The reason no one can answer is because non-Hebrew Gentiles are NOT in any covenant with God. The best a "Gentile" can ask for is to have a Hebrew parent somewhere in their ancestry because the covenant is with Abraham and his seed and God keeps His promises.
It is called the New Testament. Read it, study it, believe it and you will have your answer.
 
I agree. The promise was singular: Isaac.
As usual, you are so wrong. The promise is singular: CHRIST, so said Paul.

Galatians 3:16​

“Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.”

Galatians 3:29​

“And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.”

Abraham, the father of the faithful and the Friend of God, to whom God gave many great and precious promises, is the father of all who believe in Christ, making them his legitimate heirs. If one have aligned themselves with Christ by faith and baptism, they are the heir of Abraham. It is baptized Christians who are the seed of Abraham and can claim the promises (3:26-27)!

What singular promise is intended here? Free justification through Christ on Gentiles (3:8). How do you become Christ’s in order to be Abram’s seed? Practically by faith and baptism!

Eternally, God chosen us in Christ by election (Ephesians 1:3-6; 2nd Timothy 1:9; I Corinthians 1:30-31).

Legally, Jesus Christ obeyed, died, and lives for the elect (Romans 5:19; Ist Corinthians 15:22).

Vitally, the Holy Spirit regenerates us in Christ (Ephesians 2:4-6,10; Ist Peter 1:2; John 3:6-8).

Practically, we are Christ’s by our faith and baptism (Romans 13:14; Ephesians 4:24; Philippians 2:12-13).

Finally, we are Christ’s by glorification in heaven (Ephesians 2:6-7; Romans 8:23,29-30; 9:23; Ist Peter 1:5).
 
No, I have not changed my teaching. Baptism is the occasion, the instant in the life of the repentant believer when God forgives his sins and gives him the gift of the Holy Spirit. But baptism is not the cause, the agent, or the means of either forgiveness or regeneration. There are those, for example, the RCC, who believe and teach baptismal regeneration, namely that Christian baptism is a sacrament wherein resides the power to forgive sins.

None of that changes the fact that the founding fathers of the United States, worked very hard to keep any specific denomination or sect out of the constitution, while maintaining a decidedly basis on the fundamental Judeo-Christian values. That was the purpose of the "wall of separation between church and state", a term coined by Thomas Jefferson in a letter to the Danbury Baptists on January 1, 1802.
So you are saying if one has not been water baptized then the gift of the Holy Ghost has not been given to them .
speaking in tongues is one of the gifts of the Holy Spirit . So is healing and other things .
So how did the gentiles in the house of cornelious speak tongues as did the apostels
and then PETER says is there any water here that these may be baptized .
I know we should be water baptized but some things people teach are not entirely true .
How did them gentiles in the house of cornelious
speak , as peter would later tell the other apostels , we heard them speak with tongues as we ourselves did ,
How then could these gentiles speak with tongues
IF , as you say , the gift of the HOLY GHOST aint given UNTIL water baptism .
I have no problem with any man that reminds the church we should be water baptized
but we really NEED to know that what we teach is true .
 
Red, that is the false doctrine of determinism that is variously presented in so much of Calvinist/Reformed teaching. It is false. There is no indication whatsoever that God determined where you and I were born, who our parents are, our genetic makeup, siblings or anything at al about us. It is well presented that God foreknew all of that, but there is no indication that he caused any of it. What He did was create a system whereby all of those things happen according to natural law. That cannot in any way be identified as predestination. There were some identified exceptions to that in the scriptures; but even those were really few and far between.
Jim, I will answer this later, but first I owe Johann a post #260 which I plan on doing next ASAP.
 
So you are saying if one has not been water baptized then the gift of the Holy Ghost has not been given to them .
speaking in tongues is one of the gifts of the Holy Spirit . So is healing and other things .
So how did the gentiles in the house of cornelious speak tongues as did the apostels
and then PETER says is there any water here that these may be baptized .
I know we should be water baptized but some things people teach are not entirely true .
How did them gentiles in the house of cornelious
speak , as peter would later tell the other apostels , we heard them speak with tongues as we ourselves did ,
How then could these gentiles speak with tongues
IF , as you say , the gift of the HOLY GHOST aint given UNTIL water baptism .
I have no problem with any man that reminds the church we should be water baptized
but we really NEED to know that what we teach is true .
You confuse the "gift of the Holy Spirit" of Acts 2:38 and the gifts of the Holy Spirit of passages such as 1 Corinthians 12.

In Acts 2:38 the gift is the Holy Spirit. It is the indwelling of the Holy Spirit that every redeemed person receives. God has promised that gift to the repentant believer when he is baptized. Whether or not God gives that gift to the unbaptized believer not really ever discussed in the scriptures.

The receiving of the gifts of the Holy Spirit as in 1 Corithians12 really has nothing to do with repentance, baptism, or even believing. Nor was it in any way universal with the redeemed as is the gift of the Holy Spirit. It was very selective and specific to a few throughout the scriptural history.
 
Did All Men Have a "Perfect Opportunity in Adam"?
@Johann

Absolutely. Adam was created in the very image of God in true holiness, free of a sin nature ~ with spiritual wisdom, knowledge and understanding with a will that did not love darkness rather it rejoiced in the light of his Creator. A will free from any bondage whatsoever, and in nay sense.

Added to this, he lived in a world free of any curse, with all that was needed to make him perfectly happy and contended, with a beautiful wife to live with him serving him as a help meet. Plus, God only gave him one commandment to live by, which truly encompassed all others that one make considered as a duty of Adam in order to please his Creator, God.

A question for you Johann ~ do you not see how God making Adam as your head and representative before God, is so much better than you having sinful nature, that is at enmity against him, is so much more righteous and merciful? Do, or anyone person, think you could have done better? Of course not. Angels which were created higher than we are, sinned and left their own estate as soon as God left them to themselves, so, why do you think you could do do better.? Why are men so in love with what they think they have...free will? Truly, what's free about man's will, free to do what? Sin, that's the only way it is free, it certainly is not free to do spiritual acts which would be pleasing to God, per so many scriptures. Romans 8:5-13. Yes, Johann, Adam came all of his posterity a prefect opportunity to obey using a will that was not at enmity agapist God.
The idea that all people had a “perfect opportunity” in Adam assumes a kind of strict federal headship—meaning Adam acted as our representative in a way that completely determined our fate. While it's true that Adam's sin affected all humanity (Romans 5:12), we must be careful not to overstate its implications.
Then please give to give me your understanding of Romans 5:12-19.
Paul introduced here the legal guilt of all men in their first father Adam, condemning them a whole new way.

Paul had taken the Jewish legalists back to Abraham to show justification without circumcision or Law. Romans 4

Now He will take all men, Jews and Gentiles, back to Adam and show them all guilty for his first sin.

Here in Romans 5:12-19 we have revealed truth regarding the cause and origin of death, which no man can discover or even begin to understand without God revealing this hidden mystery in the Bible to His children.

Theological battles have been fought over the individual words of this text with harsh accusations and great doctrinal differences arising from the efforts of man to overthrow the full force of this verse.

Here is where we see the doctrine of original sin, not in man’s nature, but in his legal guilt and condemnation.

This passage does not directly teach total depravity, but rather guilt and condemnation for Adam’s sin. The distinction between original sin and total depravity in both word and concept is very important here, for there are two different, important doctrines represented by these words, both of which must be taught. Total depravity is the ruin of man’s nature into a state of spiritual death (Genesis 2:17; Ephesians 2:1-3; Romans 8:7-8). Original sin is legal guilt and condemnation of all men for indirect participation in Adam’s sin in Eden. Total depravity is man’s propensity, yea necessity, of sinning from birth to death by a rebellious nature. Original sin is God’s accounting where He has imputed or charged Adam’s guilt and punishment to all.

If you choose to deny total depravity (of nature), you are already legally guilty for the original sin of Adam.

If you choose to deny original sin (of Adam), you are yet totally depraved and will condemn yourself by sins.

Consider that consistent and extreme Arminians, like Campbellites (Church of Christ), must deny original sin. They believe those with active consciences are saved by baptism, thus endangering all that die in infancy. Protestants save their infants from original sin by infant baptism, so Campbellites must deny original sin. They have said, “We are born sinless, pure, and spiritually alive,” denying original sin and total depravity.

Consider that Roman Catholics, accepting an idea of original sin, must invent infant baptism to save babies. By assuming baptism saves from original sin, they must not withhold the sacrament and risk infant lives. However, what happens to the poor infants of Catholic or other mothers that die without infant baptism? They comforted tearful mothers of infants dying without baptism by inventing Limbo Infantum for unbaptized babies (which led to Limbus Patrum, the decent place on the edge of hell for O.T. saints).

One of the gravest scenes is a cemetery with an erected tent, where another life, another body, another person, has ended all earthly ambitions and efforts and is consigned to total physical corruption. The scene proves God’s hatred for sin and the overwhelming ignorance of man, which cannot defer or modify death in any way.

Though we must soberly consider the doctrine of sin revealed here, we can remember our Savior with joy. He justified and made atonement for us, and much more than that will save from coming wrath (5:6-10) Furthermore, God also made atonement for us in Christ, putting us one with God as in Eden before (5:11). Where sin abounded and death reigned by Law, grace has abounded much more and life reigns (5:20-21).

There are things to keep in mind while studying this passage lest any confusion arise or any lessons be lost. Total depravity and original sin are quite different – vital versus legal condemnation – though connected. The sovereignty of God over man is exalted about as much as it can be by imputation of Adam’s sin. You may ask and answer questions that evolutionists cannot honestly do – Where did death come from? You may ask and answer questions that evolutionists cannot honestly do – Why has it not evolved away? You may ask and answer a question that should plague every thinking person – WHY DO BABIES DIE?

Grammatically, a reader may proceed from 5:12 to 5:18, where Paul took up after his parenthesis, for the therefore of 18 and the argument of both verses are drawing summary conclusions from 5:12-17.
Ezekiel 18:20 is clear: “The soul who sins shall die. The son shall not suffer for the iniquity of the father, nor the father suffer for the iniquity of the son.”

If we inherited Adam’s guilt in a way that makes us personally incapable of responding to God, why does Ezekiel emphasize individual responsibility?
Johann, that's a fair and sincere question. I'm convinced that the prophet Ezekiel is speaking concerning how each live in the flesh while they are living. Johann, this is the only sense this could be true, for at least two reasons that I can think of at the moment: first, it is true that in Adam all died because of his sin, this cannot be denied without rejecting God's word. Secondly, it is also, true God has, and can visit the sins of the father's up until the third or fourth generation of them that hated God while they lived in flesh during their days upon the earth.

Exodus 34:7​

“Keeping mercy for thousands, forgiving iniquity and transgression and sin, and that will by no means clear the guilty; visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children, and upon the children's children, unto the third and to the fourth generation.”

Numbers 14:18​

“The LORD is longsuffering, and of great mercy, forgiving iniquity and transgression, and by no means clearing the guilty, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation.”

Deuteronomy 5:9​

“Thou shalt not bow down thyself unto them, nor serve them: for I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me,”

So, we must labor to reconcile are scriptures, which I know that it is not always easy to, must, we cannot refuse to consider scriptures just because we cannot make it fit into what we have come to accept and believe ~ honestly and sincerity are two godly virtues we must live by.

I may stop and come back and finish keep this from being too long.
 
If Adam’s sin makes all people hopelessly incapable of choosing God, then shouldn’t Christ’s act automatically make all people righteous?
@Johann

All for whom Jesus Christ was a surety for did just that!

Romans 5:14​

“Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.”

The resemblance, on account of which Adam is regarded as the type of Christ, consists in this, that Adam communicated to those whom he represented what belonged to him, and that Christ also communicated to those whom He represents what belonged to Him. There is, however, a great dissimilarity between what the one and the other communicates By his disobedience Adam has communicated sin and death, and by His obedience Christ has communicated righteousness and life; and as Adam was the author of the natural life of his posterity, so Christ is the author of the spiritual life which His people now possess, and which they shall enjoy at their resurrection, so that, in accordance with these analogies, He is called the last Adam. If, then, the actual obedience of Christ is thus imputed to all those of whom He is the head, and is counted to them for their justification as their own obedience; in the same way, the actual sin of Adam, who is the type of Christ, is imputed to all those of whom he is the head, and is counted for their condemnation, as their own sin.

In writing to those at Corinth, who were sanctified in Christ Jesus, the Apostle says:

1st Corinthians 15:47,48
"The first man is of the earth, earthy; the second man is the Lord from heaven. As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy; and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly. And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly."

I'm sure more will be said on this point later, and I'm ready for the gainsayers to come forth, and I know they will.
Paul’s argument is one of parallelism: just as Adam’s sin introduced death into the world, Christ’s work brings life—but the reception of that life requires a response (faith, as Romans 10:9-10 makes clear).
Johann, Christ life, death and resurrection did so much more than made life "a possibility", Jesus' redemption "secured" God's righteousness and the gift of life for each and every child of grace, whether or not they ever hear a gospel message, which message when heard and believe only manifest where there is life, it cannot bring life ~ the power of God does that for those Christ acted as their surety for. 2nd Timothy 1:9,10; Ephesians 1:19-2:1; etc. Johann, you add any conditions (faith, baptism, etc., etc.,) then you have corrupted the gospel of pure grace. Much like those Jews in Jerusalem that believe yet wanted to add works to the Gentiles believers.

Acts 15:1​

“And certain men which came down from Judaea taught the brethren, and said, Except ye be circumcised after the manner of Moses, ye cannot be saved.”
Are People Completely Incapable of Choosing God?
The claim is that every person is in total bondage to sin and Satan, making them incapable of choosing God. But Scripture paints a more nuanced picture.
No, not the scripture painting a more subtle picture....(if that's what you mean by nuanced)..... the word of God is clear as to the flesh of man ~ it is corrupt according to the deceitful lust! And deceitful it is in every conceivable ways imaginable.

Ephesians 4:22​

“That ye put off concerning the former conversation the old man, which is corrupt according to the deceitful lusts;”

Romans 7:18​

“For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh,) dwelleth no good thing: for to will is present with me; but how to perform that which is good I find not.”

There is so much, that could be said to show just how corrupt man is by nature, and apart from the grace of Almighty God. enough for now.
The Work of the Holy Spirit Enables, But Doesn't Override Free Will
There is no such thing as a will that is free to do spiritual acts pleasing to God.

Romans 8:7​

Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.”

Are you calling God a liar by saying the flesh can indeed be subject? The Spirit of God does so much more than to just enable, he does all the work in regeneration, man is passive by being dead in trespasses and sin. John 1:13 is very clear as to teh new birth, You guys love to fight against the truth.

Enough said, unless you feel I need to address any point that I did not, most was basically saying the same thing over, but if you have a scripture or scriptures you want me to comment, then tell, no problem.
 
Johann, Christ life, death and resurrection did so much more than made life "a possibility", Jesus' redemption "secured" God's righteousness and the gift of life for each and every child of grace, whether or not they ever hear a gospel message, which message when heard and believe only manifest where there is life, it cannot bring life ~ the power of God does that for those Christ acted as their surety for. 2nd Timothy 1:9,10; Ephesians 1:19-2:1; etc. Johann, you add any conditions (faith, baptism, etc., etc.,) then you have corrupted the gospel of pure grace. Much like those Jews in Jerusalem that believe yet wanted to add works to the Gentiles believers.

Acts 15:1​

“And certain men which came down from Judaea taught the brethren, and said, Except ye be circumcised after the manner of Moses, ye cannot be saved.”
The Biblical Necessity of Faith in Salvation

Your argument assumes that faith is a result of salvation rather than a necessary response to God’s grace. However, Paul explicitly states that faith is the means by which salvation is applied to the believer.

Romans 3:22-25 – "Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference… Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past."

The righteousness of God comes through faith, not as a mere manifestation of life already given.


The phrase διὰ πίστεως (dia pisteōs, "through faith") signifies the instrumental means by which Christ’s righteousness is received (cf. Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, p. 373).

Ephesians 2:8-9 – "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast."

The preposition διὰ (dia, "through") with the genitive πίστεως (pisteōs, "faith") grammatically establishes faith as the channel through which salvation is applied.
If faith were merely a "manifestation" of life already granted, then Paul’s statement would be meaningless.


John 3:16 – "That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."

The phrase ὁ πιστεύων (ho pisteuōn, "the one believing") is a present participle denoting an ongoing act of faith, not a passive result of prior regeneration.


2. Misuse of 2 Timothy 1:9-10 and Ephesians 1:19-2:1

Your argument uses 2 Timothy 1:9-10 and Ephesians 1:19-2:1 to suggest that salvation is applied irrespective of faith. However, these passages, when read in context, do not negate the necessity of faith.

2 Timothy 1:9-10 states that God "hath saved us and called us with a holy calling… according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began."

This passage refers to God's eternal plan of salvation, not to the application of salvation apart from faith. The manifestation of that salvation occurs "through the gospel" (διὰ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου, v.10).

The gospel must be believed for one to receive salvation (cf. Romans 10:17).


Ephesians 1:19-2:1

The phrase καὶ ὑμᾶς ὄντας νεκροὺς (kai hymas ontas nekrous, "and you, being dead") in Ephesians 2:1 does not indicate that the gift of life is applied before faith but describes the prior state of the believer before responding to God's grace.

Paul immediately clarifies that salvation is "by grace through faith" (Eph 2:8), reinforcing the necessity of faith as the means of receiving grace.

3. The Error of Equating Faith with Works (Acts 15:1 Misapplied)

Your argument wrongly suggests that requiring faith for salvation is akin to adding works to the gospel, comparing it to the Judaizers in Acts 15:1 who demanded circumcision.

Acts 15:1 Misapplied
The error of the Judaizers was in adding works of the law as a requirement for salvation, not in affirming faith.

Paul categorically opposed justification by works (Galatians 2:16) but upheld justification by faith (Romans 5:1, Galatians 3:6-9).

Faith is not a "work" but rather a response to grace (Romans 4:5: "to him that worketh not, but believeth…").

4. Logical Contradiction in your Argument

If faith is merely a manifestation of life already given, then it is redundant and unnecessary, contradicting the biblical emphasis on believing unto salvation.

If salvation applies to people whether or not they hear the gospel, this contradicts Romans 10:14-17, which explicitly states that faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word of Christ.

Conclusion
Your argument fails on exegetical, theological, and logical grounds. Faith is not a mere effect of salvation but the necessary means by which God’s grace is applied. Paul consistently upholds faith as the means through which salvation is received, and equating faith with works of the law is a category error. The gospel is corrupted not by requiring faith but by rejecting the necessity of faith for salvation.
There is no such thing as a will that is free to do spiritual acts pleasing to God.

Romans 8:7​

Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.”

Are you calling God a liar by saying the flesh can indeed be subject? The Spirit of God does so much more than to just enable, he does all the work in regeneration, man is passive by being dead in trespasses and sin. John 1:13 is very clear as to teh new birth, You guys love to fight against the truth.

Enough said, unless you feel I need to address any point that I did not, most was basically saying the same thing over, but if you have a scripture or scriptures you want me to comment, then tell, no problem.
Romans 8:7 Does Not Deny Human Responsibility to Respond to Grace
Romans 8:7 states:

"Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be."

This verse speaks of the natural state of man apart from the work of the Holy Spirit. It does not state that man is incapable of responding to God's drawing through prevenient grace.

Paul is describing the mindset of the σὰρξ (sarx, "flesh"), which indeed does not submit to God, but this does not mean God does not enable a response through His Spirit.

This does not contradict Jesus’ teaching in John 6:44: "No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him," which implies God’s drawing precedes coming to Christ—not that the person has no role in responding.

2. John 1:13 Does Not Support Absolute Passivity in Regeneration
John 1:12-13 states:

"But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God."

Verse 12 clearly says "as many as received him" (ὅσοι δὲ ἔλαβον αὐτόν)—indicating that receiving Christ precedes the granting of sonship.

The phrase "born... of God" in verse 13 refers to the source of spiritual birth (God’s action), not the sequence in which it occurs.

Receiving Christ (v.12) logically precedes regeneration (v.13), not the other way around.

Your argument ignores the grammatical structure:

"Not of the will of man" (οὐδὲ ἐκ θελήματος ἀνδρὸς) negates the idea that human effort or lineage produces salvation, but it does not deny the necessity of faith.

3. The Holy Spirit Enables, But Does Not Force Faith

Your assertion that man is purely passive in salvation is a misreading of the biblical concept of synergism—that God initiates and enables faith, but man must respond.

Acts 16:14 – "The Lord opened her heart, that she attended unto the things which were spoken of Paul." Opening the heart does not mean forcing faith, but rather enabling reception.

John 16:8 – "And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment." The Holy Spirit convicts and draws, but nowhere does Scripture teach that He overrides the will.

4. If Man is Passive in Regeneration, Faith is Rendered Meaningless

If man plays no role in responding to grace, then faith is not an actual response but a predetermined effect, reducing salvation to an automatism.

This contradicts Romans 10:9-10:

"If thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved."

Belief (faith) is the condition for salvation, not a mere aftereffect of regeneration.

5. Your Argument is a False Dilemma
The claim forces a false choice: either God does everything while man is entirely passive, or man contributes to his own salvation. The biblical position is neither—instead, God enables a genuine response, and man must believe.

Conclusion
Romans 8:7 does not prove total passivity in salvation; it describes the natural state apart from divine grace, not an incapacity to respond to grace when given. John 1:13 speaks of the source of regeneration, not the order in which faith and new birth occur. Your argument falsely assumes that God’s work in salvation necessitates absolute human passivity, yet Scripture consistently teaches that faith is a necessary response, made possible by God’s grace but exercised by the believer.

Thanks.

J.
 
The Biblical Necessity of Faith in Salvation

Your argument assumes that faith is a result of salvation rather than a necessary response to God’s grace. However, Paul explicitly states that faith is the means by which salvation is applied to the believer.
@Johann

I never assume, I search and compare scriptures to prove my understanding. By saying this, I'm not saying that you do not do the same, you seem to be very zealous, one that fears God. Johann, I fully understand deception is real, powerful, and can happen to the best of God's saints, if they are lazy. Faith is the evidence of regeneration, "not" the cause thereof.

1st John 5:1​

“Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him.”

Born of God = regeneration = quickened = a new nature by the Spirit to be sons vitally. This same writer made it very clear the sovereign power involved (John 1:12-13; 3:1-8).

Johann, faith to believe Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, is proof/evidence a man is already born again.

He that believeth [present tense; active voice] is born of God [perfect tense; passive]. Perfect tense is action completed [perfected] in the past and still true in the present.

We prove this priority of action by John’s previous points (Ist John 4:7 cp Ist John 3:14). Consider John’s other examples proving regeneration is before faith (Ist John 4:15). Johann, these scriptures should be read carefully, and if so, the truth is clearly seen, especially so to them who the Spirit of the Living God has opened their eyes, ears, and hearts.

Johann, unless/except a man is born again, he cannot see God’s kingdom, let alone its King (John 3:3). Being born again is God’s work, without human efforts, for us to believe (John 1:12). God’s work of grace in causing the new birth is like the sovereign wind (John 3:8). He that is of God ~ already born of God ~ can hear and understand (John 8:43-45,47).

The sheep of Christ will believe ~ they do not believe to become sheep (John 10:26). Only those already saved are able and willing to believe on Jesus (Ist Corinthians 1:18,24). The gospel is hid from others, for they are lost and blinded by Satan (2nd Corinthians 4:3-4). Faith is the evidence of eternal life and God’s gift (2nd Corinthians 2:14-17; 2nd Thessalonians 3:1-2).
Romans 3:22-25 – "Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference… Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past."

The righteousness of God comes through faith, not as a mere manifestation of life already given.
Brother, wonderful scripture you have posted, which proves to me you are not purposely trying to deceive, or preach another gospel, if you were you would never go here, nevertheless, you just are not hearing the voice of Paul very well.
The righteousness of God comes through faith, not as a mere manifestation of life already given.
Brother, God's righteousness that is revealed in the gospel that Paul preached, is indeed secured by faith, yet not by ours, but by the faith and obedience of one, JESUS CHRIST, the only begotten Son of God. The evidence that God's righteousness is mine, yours, or, any man, is by faith, and a love for Jesus Christ and his people., etc. Johann, it cannot be by Jesus' faith and obedience and our as a co-partner, since no man in the flesh can please God by doing spiritual acts that only a born again child of God can do through teh faith that Jesus secured for them. Once again, the evidence that God's righteousness is mine, yours, or, any man, is by faith, listen carefully to Paul's teaching:
Romans 3:22-25 – "Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past."
The wording is perfect, and carefully stated by Paul for us to see the truth of the gospel ~ and it is this: Jesus Christ secured the righteousness of God for us by his life of faith and obedience (Romans 5:19)...this righteousness is unto all (Jews and Gentiles) and is upon all that believe. The wording here is no different than what we see in Galatians 2:16:

Galatians 2:16​

“Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.”

We understand “the faith of Jesus Christ” to be His singular obedience to God for us, for the rest of the New Testament teaches justification by His work for us (Romans 3:22-25; 5:17-19; Philippians 3:p; etc.).

Johann, did Jesus Christ have faith in God, and did this faith play a major role in our justification? Yes, indeed.

The Lord Jesus Christ was more faithful than Moses, who had great faith (Hebrews 3:1-6).

Jesus is not the object of justifying knowledge, making it our knowledge; but rather He is the subject of it, for our justification is by His perfect knowledge of God’s will (Isaiah 53:11).

What a travesty that some interject man’s faith and knowledge into our legal justification, justification is used in other senses, and maybe this is where the confusion comes from for many.

The knowledge Jesus Christ possessed was that faith and confidence in God that led Him all His life; which took Him through Gethsemane, His horrible trial, and His miserable crucifixion, until He finally committed His spirit to His Father at the moment of death. He had great in faith and trust in God, as enemies said (Psalm 16:8; Hebrews 2:13; Mattahew 27:43).

Johann, justification is by the obedience of One, and He obeyed in life and death (Romans 5:15-19). Without faith, He could not have pleased God; but He did please (Hebrews 11:6; Matthew 23:23). Jesus definitely did trust in God (Hebrews 2:13; 3:1-2; 5:7-8; Matthew 27:43; Luke 23:46). It was Jesus Christ’s faithful obedience to God’s will that truly saved us (Hebrews 10:7-10). His perfect fulfillment and obedience to the law required more faith than any other man.

Could “the faith of Jesus Christ” be subject-genitive and teach justification by Christ alone? Absolutely! Then the sense would be we are justified by the gospel or religion of Christ. The words are used in this sense in James 2:1 and Revelation 14:12 and possibly other places.

How does our faith of believing in Christ related to Jesus Christ’s faith in God His Father? Faith neither regenerates us vitally, justifies us legally, or elects us eternally. It is for us. Our faith is the first act of a regenerated heart to lay hold of eternal life by God’s grace. To faith we add good works of seven fruits to prove election (2nd Peter 1:5-15; James 2:14-26). Faith does nothing more than any other good work of the new man (Ist Timothy 6:17-19). Faith, and the works that follow true faith, are the evidence of eternal life to our hearts.

Johann, Paul and Peter gave up all hope in the Law of works to believe Jesus Christ alone for justification and so should you and others!

Coming back...RB
 
If you choose to deny total depravity (of nature), you are already legally guilty for the original sin of Adam.

If you choose to deny original sin (of Adam), you are yet totally depraved and will condemn yourself by sins.

Makes me wonder if it's possible to agree and replace born with original sin with born spiritual death.

Unlike Adam we are not created as adults knowing God, but as babies knowing nothing, spiritual death.

Shoot ⚽
 
Romans 8:7
Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.”

That is correct, the carnal fleshy mind can't.

Are you calling God a liar by saying the flesh can indeed be subject? The Spirit of God does so much more than to just enable, he does all the work in regeneration, man is passive by being dead in trespasses and sin. John 1:13 is very clear as to teh new birth, You guys love to fight against the truth.

Why spoil it now?

We are all born spiritual death, carnal, fleshy.

The word is preached and we have a choice.

Matt 9:37 Then he said to his disciples, “The harvest is plentiful, but the laborers are few;
 
Ephesians 2:8-9 – "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast."

The preposition διὰ (dia, "through") with the genitive πίστεως (pisteōs, "faith") grammatically establishes faith as the channel through which salvation is applied.
If faith were merely a "manifestation" of life already granted, then Paul’s statement would be meaningless.
@Johann

Earlier in this thread I addressed Ephesians 2:8,9, and here it is again for you consideration, since last time I think I sent it to @GodsGrace (I think she's taking a long cappuccino break- ;))

Red Baker....Ephesians 2:7-9​

“That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus. For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast.”

In Ephesians 2:8 we have a classic example of an metonymy. The only faith that saves us legally is the faith of Christ, for no man can have faith in God, the faith that meets the requirement of a Royal law, a faith that is produce by perfect obedience to its laws! Jesus Christ alone had the faith that honoured God's law in all points, from conception, to death, in thoughts, words, and deeds ~ and this faith alone is the means of man's free justification. This faith is not of ourselves, it is the gift of God secured for God's elect by our surety, Jesus Christ. This faith is given to us in regeneration when the Spirit of God creates a new man within us after the image of his Son, Jesus Christ.

When a man hears and believes, it is not the old man (for that is impossible) but his new man that is a creative work in God's elect by the almighty power of God~this birth happens to a child of God sometimes after conception and before death, and is evidenced by faith and obedience to the word of God. Two prime examples of this is John the the Baptist and the thief on the cross.

I could spend more time proving the metonymy in Ephesians 2:8 by the context in just before verse 8, in verses: 4-6..."But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved us, Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus:"

We were IN CHRIST from all eternity, even while he lived in this world and in his death and resurrection, which secured our redemption for us. What he did, it was as though we did it, what happen to Christ happened to us legally speaking two thousand years ago.
So Johann, whose faith is under consideration in Ephesians 2:8,9? Certainly not ours, But Christ, which agrees perfectly with other scriptures quoted in our last post to you: Romans 3:22-25; Galatians 2;16, 20; Philippians 3:9; etc.

2. Misuse of 2 Timothy 1:9-10 and Ephesians 1:19-2:1

Your argument uses 2 Timothy 1:9-10 and Ephesians 1:19-2:1 to suggest that salvation is applied irrespective of faith. However, these passages, when read in context, do not negate the necessity of faith.

2 Timothy 1:9-10 states that God "hath saved us and called us with a holy calling… according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began."

This passage refers to God's eternal plan of salvation, not to the application of salvation apart from faith. The manifestation of that salvation occurs "through the gospel" (διὰ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου, v.10).

The gospel must be believed for one to receive salvation (cf. Romans 10:17).
Johann, the only person here that's misusing the scriptures would be Mr. Johann from South Africa (I just saw a nature TV program on South Africa with all those monkeys running, climbing, everywhere! Pester little creatures, please keep them there.)

2 Timothy 1:9​

“Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began,”

Johann, God's people were saved (in one sense) before they were called! Notice the order given by Paul through the Spirit. When Jesus Christ arose form the dead we were legally Justified in God's sight!

Romans 4:25​

“Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.”

Paul said that our holy calling (which only God's elect receive) was not according to our works, which includes any act we have an active part in, including faith, which all should understand by knowing the scriptures. Only the new man within us can have faith, which man is created after the image of Jesus Christ, who alone had perfect faith in God.

Paul added our salvation being called out of darkness in the glorious gospel of Christ is according to God's purpose and his grace which grace was given to us in Christ before the world began ~ or, before any had a chance to do good, or evil. Johann you said:
This passage refers to God's eternal plan of salvation, not to the application of salvation apart from faith.
Not just the plan of salvation ~ but actual salvation secured.. "Who hath saved us...before we were ever called" that why Paul emphasis, not according to our works! But our salvation from sin and condemnation is according to his own purpose and grace. You said:
The manifestation of that salvation occurs "through the gospel" (διὰ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου, v.10).
Wrong...the proof of God's grace and purpose is seen in the preaching of the gospel, in this...it bring to LIGHT where there is LIFE!

2 Timothy 1:10​

“But is now made manifest by the appearing of our Saviour Jesus Christ, who hath abolished death, and hath brought life and immortality to light through the gospel:”

The gospel does not bring life, Johann, but it will bring to LIGHT where God has already given life, a big difference!
Ephesians 1:19-2:1

The phrase καὶ ὑμᾶς ὄντας νεκροὺς (kai hymas ontas nekrous, "and you, being dead") in Ephesians 2:1 does not indicate that the gift of life is applied before faith
but describes the prior state of the believer before responding to God's grace.

Why are skipping Ephesians 1:19-21 and going straight to Ephesians 2:1? Quickly, Paul makes it abundantly clear that the same power that raised Jesus from the dead, God use to raised his children/sheep from being dead in trespasses and sins.

Ephesians 1:19​

“And what is the exceeding greatness of his power to us-ward who believe, according to the working of his mighty power, Which he wrought in Christ, when he raised him from the dead, and set him at his own right hand in the heavenly places,”

Here life is put before our faith! You must FIRST be raised from the dead, by the mighty power of God, so that you can believe, not the other way around, which is so foolish to believe in and one only believes this because they want protect their gospel that they have come to embrace!

I'll finish later..
 
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