The Trinity and the Incarnation

But The New World Translation can in no way be identified with a Trinitarian Bible and we have folks of all stripes reading these forums....

And a whole peck who clamor its a Trin bible.... So what option do I have?
Every Bible is a Trinitarian Bible if you read it with a Trinitarian bias.
I never say the Holy Book is the word of God, I declare it is the "inerrant word if God because the writings in the Holt Book are considered inspired, meaning they are believed to be "God-breathed" and convey God's message through human authors.
Your pulling my leg surely you don't say all that should someone asks what you are reading . . . . I just say I am reading my Bible or I am reading God's word - It is after all God's written word being that it is inspired by God.
Now, with that being said I believe the following in answer to your 2 questions because the answers come from the Holy Scriptures as definitely being God-breathed.

I will refer you to the prologue of the Gospel of John (John 1:1–18), specifically the identity and activity of "the Word" (Greek: ὁ Λόγος / ho Logos) in his preexistent state~ i.e., before the Incarnation, before he "became flesh" (John 1:14).

I suggest you pull out your favorite translation and follow along. SO NOT make the error of believing you remember what is written. That is how mistakes happen and the wrong info imbeds in your brain.
Yep, I understand the prologue of John - the subject being the Word.

What was the Word in his preexistent state?​

According to John 1:1–3:

He was God “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God” (ὁ Λόγος ἦν ὁ Θεός / ho Logos ēn ho Theos). The Greek construction emphatically identifies the Word as fully divine, sharing the same essence as God, while simultaneously being distinct in person (“was with God”). THERE you can see are TWO
He was eternal
“In the beginning was the Word” ~ the verb “was” (ἦν) is imperfect tense, indicating continuous existence in the past with no beginning. The phrase deliberately echoes Genesis 1:1, placing the Word already in existence when time and creation began. I will repeat... "the verb, WAS, indicates continuous existence. The Word already was in existence when time and creation began.
He was distinct from, yet in perfect communion with, the Father The Word was with God” (πρὸς τὸν Θεόν / pros ton Theon) ~the preposition pros with the accusative implies intimate, face-to-face fellowship and relational distinction within the Godhead.

What was he doing in his preexistent state?​


The same passage tells us his eternal activity:

He was the agent of all creation “All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made” (John 1:3; cf. v. 10).... Everything that exists was created through the personal agency of the Word. This aligns with other New Testament texts:

Colossians 1:16–17: “By him all things were created… and in him all things hold together.”

Hebrews 1:2–3: God made the universe through the Son and he “upholds the universe by the word of his power.”

He was the source of life and light “In him was life, and the life was the light of men” (John 1:4). ~Eternally, the Word possesses life in himself (John 5:26) and is the origin of both physical and spiritual life/light for humanity. Even before the Incarnation, he was radiating the light of God’s glory into the darkness of the created order (though “the darkness has not overcome it”).

He was the eternal object of the Father’s love and delight
Though not explicitly stated in John 1, the rest of the New Testament fills this in:

John 17:24: The Father loved the Son “before the foundation of the world.” THIS VERY VERSE SGOULD BE ALL YOU NEED TO UNDERSTAND THAT THE WORD/JESUS CAME BEFORE THE FOUNDATIONS OF THE WORLD

Proverbs 8:22–31 (interpreted christologically in early Christianity): Wisdom (identified with the Logos) was daily the Father’s delight, rejoicing before him.
In a nutshell.....

In his preexistent state, the Word (the eternal Son, the second Person of the Trinity):

Was fully and eternally God,

Existed in perfect, face-to-face communion with the Father,

Was the personal agent through whom the Father created and sustains everything,

Was the possessor and source of life and light,

And was eternally loved and delighted in by the Father.

All of this is the backdrop to the staggering declaration in John 1:14:“And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.”

DO YOU UNDERSTAND?
There I see TWO WHAT? TWO GODS? I don't read "HE WAS GOD". I don't read "HE WAS ETERNAL".
Yes, God's word (logos) has always existed - God's word is the means by which God created in the beginning - God spoke, i.e. AND GOD SAID and it was so, etc., etc.
All those statements you have in RED above - are READ into the TEXT.
John 1:1c There is no definite article before 'God'-----therefore 'God', in this case, is a predicate nominative - a noun being used as an adjective. The word was God. . . .the word fully expresses who God is or the word is the full expression of God.

And the logos - the full expression of God - became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.

A Triune God who speaks face to face with the second person of his Triune being . . . . Yet, this second person of God's Triune being is (also) God who became flesh and never ceased to be God although he was a human being. . . . made like his brothers in all things????? - YEAH, right, I fully understand!!:rolleyes:
 
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Most of us are not Jews here. So your attempt to sell us on your "Jewish Law of Agency" will not go very far, sorry.
But the Bible is a Jewish book ----- All the OT and the Gospels were concerning the Jews. Therefore, that Jewish Law of Agency would have been very applicable. Surely you have heard of a Power of Attorney?? It's basically the same thing!!!
 
Every Bible is a Trinitarian Bible if you read it with a Trinitarian bias.

Your pulling my leg surely you don't say all that should someone asks what you are reading . . . . I just say I am reading my Bible or I am reading God's word - It is after all God's written word being that it is inspired by God.

Yep, I understand the prologue of John - the subject being the Word.

There I see TWO WHAT? TWO GODS? I don't read "HE WAS GOD". I don't read "HE WAS ETERNAL".

T verses that he was eternal have been posted so often you should have them memorized. You dont read them so I wont post "THEM" for you again but here is an interesting question.

You are aware, I am sure , that when Mary was Pregnant and she went to see Elizabeth who was also pregnant, that Elizabeth got pregnant first. And John was born first, about 6 months before, then Jesus was born. You remember that right??????????????

Do you remember what John the Baptist said when Jesus came to him to be baptized?

15 John testified concerning Him. He cried out, saying, “This is He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because He was before me.’”

Do you know why???????? Do you have a clue???????????

I'll post scripture and let you think on what it says and why and then come back tomorrow and tell us all the Holy Scriptures lied again

Biblical Evidence of Jesus’ Pre-existence

John 1:1-2: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning.” This passage establishes Jesus as eternally existing.

John 8:58: “Before Abraham was born, I am!” Jesus’ statement further underscores His existence outside normal human timelines.

Philippians 2:6-7: Shows that Christ was “in the form of God” prior to taking on human form.

Together, these passages reinforce why John 1:15 can declare that Jesus “was before” John, despite John’s earlier physical birth.

Physical Chronology vs. Eternal Being

From the accounts in Luke 1, we see clearly that John was conceived and born before Jesus, placing him as the older cousin by about six months. However, the Gospels present Jesus as the Son of God, who existed with the Father “before the foundations of the world” (cf. John 17:5). This eternal nature takes precedence over any earthly date of birth.

John the Baptist recognized this reality. Although John prepared the way for Jesus (Matthew 3:1-3), he willingly acknowledged that the One who came after him in public ministry was actually His eternal Lord (Matthew 3:11; John 3:30).


A Triune God who speaks face to face with the second person of his Triune being . . . . Yet, this second person of God's Triune being is (also) God who became flesh and never ceased to be God although he was a human being. . . . made like his brothers in all things????? - YEAH, right, I fully understand!!:rolleyes:
But his brothers never had to empty themselves so in all this things is wrong.
 
T verses that he was eternal have been posted so often you should have them memorized. You dont read them so I wont post "THEM" for you again but here is an interesting question.

You are aware, I am sure , that when Mary was Pregnant and she went to see Elizabeth who was also pregnant, that Elizabeth got pregnant first. And John was born first, about 6 months before, then Jesus was born. You remember that right??????????????

Do you remember what John the Baptist said when Jesus came to him to be baptized?

15 John testified concerning Him. He cried out, saying, “This is He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because He was before me.’”

Do you know why???????? Do you have a clue???????????
Yes, I remember that. Well, it wasn't because Jesus preexisted John. . .
He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was 'superior to me' . . . before me as in RANK!
Leon Morris, New International Critical Critical Commentary on John, p. 109: suggests "he [Jesus] was my Chief."
Schofield, Authentic New Testament: "After me will come a man who ranks before me; for he is my superior"

[protos mou - 1) first in time or place; a) in any succession of things or persons; 2) first in rank; a) influence, honour b) chief c) principal 3) first, at the first]
I'll post scripture and let you think on what it says and why and then come back tomorrow and tell us all the Holy Scriptures lied again

Biblical Evidence of Jesus’ Pre-existence

John 1:1-2: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning.” This passage establishes Jesus as eternally existing.
Says nothing about Jesus preexisting . . . In the beginning was the the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The word was with God in the beginning.
God's creative speech was in the beginning - God's speech was with him and God's word was fully expressive of God.
John 8:58: “Before Abraham was born, I am!” Jesus’ statement further underscores His existence outside normal human timelines.
Says nothing about Jesus literally preexisting . . . .Before Abraham was born, I am!
of course----Jesus was prophesied way before Abraham and thus Jesus was before Abraham in God's foreknowledge and plans . . . Genesis 3:15.
Philippians 2:6-7: Shows that Christ was “in the form of God” prior to taking on human form.
Says nothing about Jesus preexisting . . . It's about attitude - having an attitude of humbleness CONTEXT.
Jesus emptied himself of his reputation as King of the Jews, as the Son of God, the Messiah . . . he relinquished his royal and priestly prerogatives and status and held the attitude of a servant. . . Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
Together, these passages reinforce why John 1:15 can declare that Jesus “was before” John, despite John’s earlier physical birth.

Physical Chronology vs. Eternal Being

From the accounts in Luke 1, we see clearly that John was conceived and born before Jesus, placing him as the older cousin by about six months. However, the Gospels present Jesus as the Son of God, who existed with the Father “before the foundations of the world” (cf. John 17:5). This eternal nature takes precedence over any earthly date of birth.

John the Baptist recognized this reality. Although John prepared the way for Jesus (Matthew 3:1-3), he willingly acknowledged that the One who came after him in public ministry was actually His eternal Lord (Matthew 3:11; John 3:30).

But his brothers never had to empty themselves so in all this things is wrong.
Eternal being - An eternal being has no beginning and no end.
Jesus had a beginning recorded in the genealogy records in Matthew - his conception in Matthew, his conception and birth in Luke. Jesus had an end - He died upon a cross being the propitiation for the remission of sins and God raised him to eternal life - he did not inherently have eternal life.

Jesus preexisted in the foreknowledge and predetermined plan of God. Genesis 3:15 very first prophecy. Acts 2 - Jesus, the man, was delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God . . . 1 Peter 1 - Jesus was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you . . . Rev. 13:8 - the Lamb, Jesus, was slain 'from the foundation of the world.' - Jesus did not literally preexisted but he did preexist in the plan and foreknowledge of God.

So I guess all of that was the answer to my question---- What was he in his preexistent state? What was he doing?
 
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But the Bible is a Jewish book ----- All the OT and the Gospels were concerning the Jews. Therefore, that Jewish Law of Agency would have been very applicable. Surely you have heard of a Power of Attorney?? It's basically the same thing!!!
Since when did God the Father issue out a Power of Attorney for Jesus? Now I've heard everything....

Furthermore. do you offer the same courtesies to the NT (or even to the LXX) which was written in Greek? If not then why not?
 
Yes, I remember that. Well, it wasn't because Jesus preexisted John. . .
He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was 'superior to me' . . . before me as in RANK!
Leon Morris, New International Critical Critical Commentary on John, p. 109: suggests "he [Jesus] was my Chief."
Schofield, Authentic New Testament: "After me will come a man who ranks before me; for he is my superior"

amazing grace is a perfect moniker for you.

Because every time I read you my mouth falls open in disbelieving amazement.

Run along and play with someone else... That little voice in my head is telling me it is time to stop with you
otherwise I am most likely going to say things that you do not want to hear.

BTW... I only read this far. I have been told often to not read things that are false or offensive.... You manage to capture both of those.
[protos mou - 1) first in time or place; a) in any succession of things or persons; 2) first in rank; a) influence, honour b) chief c) principal 3) first, at the first]

Says nothing about Jesus preexisting . . . In the beginning was the the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The word was with God in the beginning.
God's creative speech was in the beginning - God's speech was with him and God's word was fully expressive of God.

Says nothing about Jesus literally preexisting . . . .Before Abraham was born, I am!
of course----Jesus was prophesied way before Abraham and thus Jesus was before Abraham in God's foreknowledge and plans . . . Genesis 3:15.

Says nothing about Jesus preexisting . . . It's about attitude - having an attitude of humbleness CONTEXT.
Jesus emptied himself of his reputation as King of the Jews, as the Son of God, the Messiah . . . he relinquished his royal and priestly prerogatives and status and held the attitude of a servant. . . Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:

Eternal being - An eternal being has no beginning and no end.
Jesus had a beginning recorded in the genealogy records in Matthew - his conception in Matthew, his conception and birth in Luke. Jesus had an end - He died upon a cross being the propitiation for the remission of sins and God raised him to eternal life - he did not inherently have eternal life.

Jesus preexisted in the foreknowledge and predetermined plan of God. Genesis 3:15 very first prophecy. Acts 2 - Jesus, the man, was delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God . . . 1 Peter 1 - Jesus was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you . . . Rev. 13:8 - the Lamb, Jesus, was slain 'from the foundation of the world.' - Jesus did not literally preexisted but he did preexist in the plan and foreknowledge of God.

So I guess all of that was the answer to my question---- What was he in his preexistent state? What was he doing?
 
Since when did God the Father issue out a Power of Attorney for Jesus? Now I've heard everything....
That's not what I said.
Furthermore. do you offer the same courtesies to the NT (or even to the LXX) which was written in Greek? If not then why not?
Please elaborate on what your saying here.
 
amazing grace is a perfect moniker for you.

Because every time I read you my mouth falls open in disbelieving amazement.
Thanks.
Run along and play with someone else... That little voice in my head is telling me it is time to stop with you
otherwise I am most likely going to say things that you do not want to hear.

BTW... I only read this far. I have been told often to not read things that are false or offensive.... You manage to capture both of those.
BTW, I don't really believe you ONLY read this far...... I believe you read everything.
I believe I am more in line with scripture than some.
It's hard to go against explicit scripture which clearly speaks of Jesus existing in the mind, in the foreknowledge of God - in his plans for mankind's redemption and stand against scripture that INFERS a literal preexistence.
 
Thanks.

BTW, I don't really believe you ONLY read this far...... I believe you read everything.
I believe I am more in line with scripture than some.
It's hard to go against explicit scripture which clearly speaks of Jesus existing in the mind, in the foreknowledge of God - in his plans for mankind's redemption and stand against scripture that INFERS a literal preexistence.
doh.gif Believe it
 
I think out of all that you said - his preexistent state = the word.
I'm unclear as to what he was doing ..... speaking as the word of God?
Was he a spirit being?
Let me ask you this.

Id God the Father a spirit being and has he ever been anything but a spirit being?

Is the Holy Spirit a spirit being and has he ever been anything other then a spirit being.

Until the Word became flesh ( John 1:14) and a spirit being wanted the Word to become his
mortal Son... and he used the spirit being Holy Spirit to make that happen it certainly stands
to reason that since the Word was not flesh and blood yet, and he was with other spirit beings that
yes, the Word was a spirit being.
 
So you acknowledge He has a preexisting form but just not sure what that means ?

Is that correct ?
Do I acknowledge that Jesus literally had a preexisting state whatever that was? NO, I do not.
I believe that Jesus preexisted in the foreknowledge and plan of God for salvation beginning with Genesis 3:15.
Acts 2 - Jesus, the man, was delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God . . .
1 Peter 1 - Jesus was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you . . . Rev. 13:8 - the Lamb, Jesus, was slain 'from the foundation of the world.' -
IOW, not a literal preexistence.

All I have been doing for the last so many post is get an answer to this: What was he in his preexistent state? What was he doing?
 
OMGosh . . . I can't explain it any clearer.

Refer to the Jewish Principal of Agency to understand what I am saying -----

The LORD, aka YHWH aka the LORD is the principal.

the Angel of the LORD is SENT by the LORD, aka YHWH aka God as HIS agent.

The Agent, the angel of the LORD, acts on behalf of the principal.

A person's (the LORD's) agent, in this case, the Angel of the LORD, is regarded as the person (the LORD) himself.

The Angel acting as the agent sent by God could therefore speak AS God.
God has an actual created angel for those important messages. His name is Gabriel. Gabriel has never been called the Angel of the Lord, but always Gabriel. And he never, I mean NEVER allows himself to be worshiped. Jesus has always existed. In the Old Testament, He appeared as a theophany called the Angel of the Lord, and once as a man who fought with Jacob all night and ended up touching Jacob's hip and putting it out. (no chiropractors back then unfortunately). But Jacob recognized that this "man" was God and wouldn't let Him go until He blessed him.

You can swear all you want, but it is what it is.
 
Do I acknowledge that Jesus literally had a preexisting state whatever that was? NO, I do not.
I believe that Jesus preexisted in the foreknowledge and plan of God for salvation beginning with Genesis 3:15.
Acts 2 - Jesus, the man, was delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God . . .
1 Peter 1 - Jesus was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you . . . Rev. 13:8 - the Lamb, Jesus, was slain 'from the foundation of the world.' -
IOW, not a literal preexistence.

All I have been doing for the last so many post is get an answer to this: What was he in his preexistent state? What was he doing?
Jesus said no man has seen the Father. So who did they see in the O.T. that is identified as YHWH, God, Lord ?
 
God has an actual created angel for those important messages. His name is Gabriel. Gabriel has never been called the Angel of the Lord, but always Gabriel. And he never, I mean NEVER allows himself to be worshiped. Jesus has always existed. In the Old Testament, He appeared as a theophany called the Angel of the Lord, and once as a man who fought with Jacob all night and ended up touching Jacob's hip and putting it out. (no chiropractors back then unfortunately). But Jacob recognized that this "man" was God and wouldn't let Him go until He blessed him.

You can swear all you want, but it is what it is.
First off, I didn't swear . . . and nope, that's not what it is.

Yes, there is a hierarchy within God's created angels. Did I say Gabriel was the Angel of the LORD? The only angels I know of that are named in scripture are Gabriel, Michael and Lucifer-who was the fallen angel.
Nope, Jesus had a beginning.
An angel fought with Jacob . . . In the womb he took his brother by the heel, and in his manhood he strove with God. He strove with the angel and prevailed; he wept and sought his favor. He met God at Bethel, and there God spoke with us— Hosea 12:3,4
Jacob met God via the angel ---- He fought with God via the angel . . . .
AGAIN:

God is the principal.

the angel is SENT by God as HIS agent.

The Agenta ka the angel which fought with Jacob, acts on behalf of the principal.

A person's (the God's) agent, in this case, an angel, is regarded as the person (the God) himself.

The Angel acting as the agent sent by God fought with Jacob, fully representing God AS God.
 
Jesus said no man has seen the Father. So who did they see in the O.T. that is identified as YHWH, God, Lord ?
Yep, Jesus said not man had seen the Father - and Jesus, the only begotten Son, has declared him, made him known.

It was usually an angel they saw which fully represented God.
All I have been doing for the last so many post is get an answer to this: What was he in his preexistent state? What was he doing?
Still waiting for a simple answer.
 
All I have been doing for the last so many post is get an answer to this: What was he in his preexistent state? What was he doing?
Last try and I am not going to highlight or change a word because you wont believe it anyway.

I have so many references and you believe nothing. You admit the Word had to have been in existence before Jesus was conceived so that the Word would become flesh.

So now I found this for you.....

Who Was the Word in His Preexistent State?


According to the New Testament—especially the Gospel of John—the Word refers to Jesus Christ in His eternal, divine existence before becoming human.


1. The Word Was God


  • “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” (John 1:1)
This means:


  • He existed before creation.
  • He coexisted with God the Father.
  • He shared the divine nature—He was God.

2. The Word Was the Agent of Creation


  • “All things were made through Him, and without Him was not any thing made that was made.” (John 1:3)

The Word wasn’t just present—He was the active Creator.


3. The Word Was Eternal Life and Light


  • “In Him was life, and the life was the light of men.” (John 1:4)

He was the source of:


  • Life
  • Light
  • Truth

Before anything existed, the Word already possessed these qualities.




What Was He Doing in His Preexistent State?


Scripture describes several active roles of the Word before becoming flesh:




1. Creating and Sustaining the Universe


  • “All things were made through Him…” (John 1:3)
  • “In Him all things hold together.” (Colossians 1:17)

He:


  • Created all things
  • Sustains all things
  • Upholds the order of the universe



2. Revealing God’s Character


The Word is the perfect expression of God:


  • “No one has ever seen God; the only begotten Son…He has made Him known.” (John 1:18)

Even before the incarnation, the Word served as the self-expression of God, revealing His will and nature.




3. Existing in Glory With the Father


  • “Father, glorify Me…with the glory I had with You before the world existed.” (John 17:5)

He shared divine glory in eternal communion with the Father.




4. Acting as the Divine Word/Wisdom


This connects to the Old Testament theme of God’s Word and Wisdom:


  • God’s Word that creates (Genesis 1)
  • God’s Wisdom present with Him before creation (Proverbs 8)

This supports the idea that the Word was actively involved in God’s purposes from eternity.




Summary


Who was the Word?


  • Eternal
  • Divine
  • With God
  • Creator
  • Life and Light

What was He doing?


  • Creating the world
  • Sustaining the universe
  • Revealing God
  • Sharing eternal glory with the Father
 
Let me ask you this.

Id God the Father a spirit being and has he ever been anything but a spirit being?

Is the Holy Spirit a spirit being and has he ever been anything other then a spirit being.
God is the Holy Spirit who is our Father and the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. The Holy Spirit is also the power of the Most High. (Luke 1:35) God is Spirit and has never been anything but a spirit being.
Until the Word became flesh ( John 1:14) and a spirit being wanted the Word to become his
mortal Son... and he used the spirit being Holy Spirit to make that happen it certainly stands
to reason that since the Word was not flesh and blood yet, and he was with other spirit beings that
yes, the Word was a spirit being.
The 'word' became flesh . . . the 'word' which was fully expressive of God became a human being. Thus Jesus was the full expression of God which makes perfect sense since Jesus came to make known God the Father.
God is still Spirit ---- God is not a man, never has been a man and will never be a man.

God wanted the 'word' to become his mortal Son??? God wanted his spoken word which He spoke in the beginning to become a mortal Son????? OOPS, I see your mouth falling open in utter amazement! I know mine did when I read the way your mind reasons this Triune God business. Do you even hear yourself?

God used his power - his spirit to bring about the conception of his human Son. Or else Jesus would have been called the Son of the Holy Spirit instead of the Son of God.

So, you're saying that Jesus was a spirit being . . . Why does Paul through inspiration when teaching about the resurrection and the resurrected body say . . . . . . But it is not the spiritual that is first but the natural, and then the spiritual?
 
Yep, Jesus said not man had seen the Father - and Jesus, the only begotten Son, has declared him, made him known.

It was usually an angel they saw which fully represented God.

Still waiting for a simple answer.
there are many times it was not an angel of the Lord. So who walked with adam in the garden ?
 
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