The Bible says the Son will be subject to the Father even in the future “When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him [God] who put all things in subjection under him, that God may be all in all” (1 Corinthians 15:28). The teaching that the two of them are “co-equal” must be wrong if Jesus is subject to the Father even in the eternal future.
“Then cometh the end, when he [Christ] shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he [Christ] shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
For he [Christ] must reign, till he [God] hath put all enemies under his [Christ's] feet.
The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.
For he [God] hath put all things under his [Christ's] feet. But when he [God] said all things are put under him, [Christ] it is manifest [obvious] that he [God] is excepted, [God is the only exception] which did put all things under him [Christ].
And when all things shall be subdued unto him, [Christ] then [not now, but at some future time] shall the Son also himself be subject unto him [God] that put all things under him, [Christ] that God may be all in all."
If you want to reduce the Creator to an angel, that is another distortion that you can pursue. If you want to follow scripture as it appears to resolve itself, then the Messenger is a manifestation of the Word who then became incarnate. Otherwise, that Angel is left a mystery. I cannot believe the degree that unitarians get stuck in a rut,.
The problem of unitarians is to flatten scripture to meaningless ideas rather than writers inspired by God. Anything that takes a person beyond hyperliteralism is a step in the right direction.
I see part of the confusion here. The physical body of Jesus did not exist until the incarnation of the Word. Then, the Word appears to be the one who is described by the Angel of the Lord. This explains the greater probability rather than denying the preexisting One only appears in the New Testament.
I see part of the confusion here. The physical body of Jesus did not exist until the incarnation of the Word. Then, the Word appears to be the one who is described by the Angel of the Lord. This explains the greater probability rather than denying the preexisting One only appears in the New Testament.
yes, for in the OT whenever God appeared and spoke to people seemed to always be the Son before his physical incarnation into human flesh, so was the one who spoke to Adam in garden, to Abraham, as Angel of the Lord etc
If you want to reduce the Creator to an angel, that is another distortion that you can pursue. If you want to follow scripture as it appears to resolve itself, then the Messenger is a manifestation of the Word who then became incarnate. Otherwise, that Angel is left a mystery. I cannot believe the degree that unitarians get stuck in a rut,.
The problem of unitarians is to flatten scripture to meaningless ideas rather than writers inspired by God. Anything that takes a person beyond hyperliteralism is a step in the right direction.
I'm not the one who claimed or spoke of Jesus as being the Angel of the LORD in the Old Testament.
The Angel of the LORD is not a mystery......it's called the Angel of the LORD because it was an angel.
First the Angel of the LORD was Jesus.....now the Angel of the LORD is God.....I suppose you mean that the Angel of the LORD was the Triune God??? Why can't the Angle of the LORD just be that --- the Angel of the LORD?
I agree that the Angel of the LORD in the OT spoke for God and AS God but the angel was not God Himself which is why he was called the Angel of the LORD --- he was an angel sent by God to act on his behalf. It's what's known as the 'principle of agency'.
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