The Definition of Grace

civic said:
I'm talking about your passage you quoted about the elect which is the Jews. Not going the rabbit trails and bait n switch. :)
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I know the context, however grace salvation isnt just for jews, gentiles are also saved by grace. So your point is not valid unless you are saying Gods Salvation by Grace is restricted to jews. Is that what you are saying ?
 
brightfame52 said:
I know the context, however grace salvation isnt just for jews, gentiles are also saved by grace. So your point is not valid unless you are saying Gods Salvation by Grace is restricted to jews. Is that what you are saying ?
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in the passage you quoted with the elect/grace its restricted to the future. You are not the elect in that passage. :)
 
brightfame52 said:
False, believing is given by grace, Gods discriminating grace. Everyone who believes in Jesus were made partakers of discriminating grace.
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Of course, Grace precedes and grants the ability to believe, for God must first desire to reconcile with man. This desire is evidenced in God sending Christ, for this is how God demonstrated that he “loved the world”!

There is no “discrimination” in the love for the world, it is for all men, and “God did this so that men might seek him, and, perhaps, reach out for him and find him, though he is not very far from any one of us.” (And “from any one of us” literally means “any single one of us”! Thus, there is no one that God doesn’t want to seek, reach out for, and find him. And he is not very far from any one of us!)

Doug
 
TibiasDad said:
Of course, Grace precedes and grants the ability to believe, for God must first desire to reconcile with man. This desire is evidenced in God sending Christ, for this is how God demonstrated that he “loved the world”!

There is no “discrimination” in the love for the world, it is for all men, and “God did this so that men might seek him, and, perhaps, reach out for him and find him, though he is not very far from any one of us.” (And “from any one of us” literally means “any single one of us”! Thus, there is no one that God doesn’t want to seek, reach out for, and find him. And he is not very far from any one of us!)

Doug
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Yes Grace is discriminate, its only for a remnant of mankind, so its called a remnant according to the election of grace Rom 11:5-6

5 Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace.

6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then it is no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.
 
TibiasDad said:
Of course, Grace precedes and grants the ability to believe, for God must first desire to reconcile with man. This desire is evidenced in God sending Christ, for this is how God demonstrated that he “loved the world”!

There is no “discrimination” in the love for the world, it is for all men, and “God did this so that men might seek him, and, perhaps, reach out for him and find him, though he is not very far from any one of us.” (And “from any one of us” literally means “any single one of us”! Thus, there is no one that God doesn’t want to seek, reach out for, and find him. And he is not very far from any one of us!)

Doug
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Amen preach it brother !!!
 
brightfame52 said:
Then you believe that grace salvation is restricted to jews, thats apostacy
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Nope I’m dealing exclusively with the passage you quoted and misapplied to you. No election or grace for you in that passage as it’s restricted to the Jewish remnant.

The reality is you put yourself in a box / ditch you can’t escape from so now you are diverting the conversation and equivocating

Hope this helps !!!
 
civic said:
Nope I’m dealing exclusively with the passage you quoted and misapplied to you. No election or grace for you in that passage as it’s restricted to the Jewish remnant.

The reality is you put yourself in a box / ditch you can’t escape from so now you are diverting the conversation and equivocating

Hope this helps !!!
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Yes you are promoting that grace salvation is only for jews. That makes God a respecter of persons, thats apostacy. Peter preached that both jews and gentiles are saved the same way by grace Acts 15:10-11

10 Now therefore why tempt ye God, to put a yoke upon the neck of the disciples, which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear?

11 But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they.

So in essence you deny Salvation by Grace.
 
'Even so then at this present time also
there is a remnant according to the election of grace.
And if by grace, then is it no more of works:
otherwise grace is no more grace.
But if it be of works, then is it no more grace:
otherwise work is no more work.
What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for;
but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded.'
(Rom 11:5)

Hello @brightfame52,

From your replies #13, #14, through to #29, the discussion has been centred on trying to rectify the problem you have caused by making application to yourself, a portion of Scripture that was intended to explain to the Elect remnant of Israel, the reason why they, out of the nation, had been saved by God's grace, but the nation, as a whole, had not.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
 
brightfame52 said:
Yes you are promoting that grace salvation is only for jews. That makes God a respecter of persons, thats apostacy. Peter preached that both jews and gentiles are saved the same way by grace Acts 15:10-11

10 Now therefore why tempt ye God, to put a yoke upon the neck of the disciples, which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear?

11 But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they.

So in essence you deny Salvation by Grace.
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Another bait n switch.

Here is what you said and now you keep running away from your own passage. :)

Brightfame 52 said in post number 13

"Grace is given only to the elect remnant, thats why its called the election of grace Rom 11

5 Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace."
 
Complete said:
'Even so then at this present time also
there is a remnant according to the election of grace.
And if by grace, then is it no more of works:
otherwise grace is no more grace.
But if it be of works, then is it no more grace:
otherwise work is no more work.
What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for;
but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded.'
(Rom 11:5)

Hello @brightfame52,

From your replies #13, #14, through to #29, the discussion has been centred on trying to rectify the problem you have caused by making application to yourself, a portion of Scripture that was intended to explain to the Elect remnant of Israel, the reason why they, out of the nation, had been saved by God's grace, but the nation, as a whole, had not.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
Click to expand...
exactly the readers can follow back and see where the rabbit trail started from as you have pointed out.
 
And here is the principle at work and demonstrated as clear as the noon time sun in the clear blue sky.

A text without the context is a pretext for a proof text. Its eisegesis and proof texting.
 
Complete said:
'Even so then at this present time also
there is a remnant according to the election of grace.
And if by grace, then is it no more of works:
otherwise grace is no more grace.
But if it be of works, then is it no more grace:
otherwise work is no more work.
What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for;
but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded.'
(Rom 11:5)

Hello @brightfame52,

From your replies #13, #14, through to #29, the discussion has been centred on trying to rectify the problem you have caused by making application to yourself, a portion of Scripture that was intended to explain to the Elect remnant of Israel, the reason why they, out of the nation, had been saved by God's grace, but the nation, as a whole, had not.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
Click to expand...
Doesnt matter the context which Rom 11:5 is found, its still describes how people are saved by grace, even if they are jews. Jews or Gentiles can only be saved by Grace, Election.
 
civic said:
Another bait n switch.

Here is what you said and now you keep running away from your own passage. :)

Brightfame 52 said in post number 13

"Grace is given only to the elect remnant, thats why its called the election of grace Rom 11

5 Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace."
Click to expand...
You still are making salvation by grace to be only for jews, that's apostacy and makes God a respecter of persons.
 
TibiasDad said:

The Definition of Grace​

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Simply put, "GRACE" is the reason I WASN'T IMMEDIATELY DESTROYED when I sinned FOR THE FIRST TIME, and was permitted to survive (under sentence of death) for 20 years until I became Born Again, and was cleansed of my SIN by FAITH in the SIN OFFERING of Jesus on the cross..

"Grace" doesn't SAVE ME, but it does give me the opportunity to BECOME SAVED predicated on what I do under CONVICTION OF SIN by the Holy Spirit. 60 years ago, I repented, and cried out in faith for salvation, and everything changed.
 

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