The Bible does not teach to pray to Jesus

One being, one God
Jesus is a god man in trinitarianism, therefore he can't be the Divine Being. The Divine Being cannot be an image made by human design and skill. Stop arguing and accept that you have turned Jesus into an idol and need to repent. (Acts 17:29)
 
I need an direct answer from you. Is Jesus Lord/Master according to the flesh or Lord according to the Spirit as is the Father? Take your time to answer but your answer must directly answer my question.
You did get a direct answer as far as the Bible is concerned. There are no single verses about Jesus being lord according to the flesh or spirit. So I am just asking you questions to help you find the answer that you think is true. For example, in Luke 1:43 Mary is called the mother of the Lord. So she isn't the mother of God right? That would mean she is mother of a Lord according to the flesh. Also, Romans 9:5 describes Jesus as an ethnic Jew who God blessed. On the other hand, Jesus became a life-giving spirit. There is probably a case that Jesus is both a Lord over our bodies and spiritual health, but not God. High priests, deacons, elders are also in this very same capacity.

Hebrews 13:17 (ESV)
"Obey your leaders and submit to them, for they are keeping watch over your souls, as those who will have to give an account. Let them do this with joy and not with groaning, for that would be of no advantage to you."
 
Jesus is a god man in trinitarianism, therefore he can't be the Divine Being. The Divine Being cannot be an image made by human design and skill. Stop arguing and accept that you have turned Jesus into an idol and need to repent. (Acts 17:29)
Nope His humanity is not His Deity you are conflating and equivocating again.

Another strawman
 
Nope His humanity is not His Deity you are conflating and equivocating again.

Another strawman
So Jesus is not fully God and fully man as most Trinitarians believe, according to you. Then you reject the hypostatic union. Good to know. So are you a modalist or oneness?
 
So Jesus is not fully God and fully man as most Trinitarians believe, according to you. Then you reject the hypostatic union. Good to know. So are you a modalist or oneness?
I'm a Trinitarian and every one of them on this forum would agree with what I just said. I have written on the H.U. and have a thread of my own work on the topic.

Once again you have no idea about what you are talking about and are misunderstanding and twisting my words like you do with scripture.


Hypostatic Union


1
. Jesus is a person. (1 Tim 2:5)

2. Jesus, the Person, has two natures- Divine and human (John 1:1, 14, 1 Timothy 3:16): Divine and human. This is the Hypostatic Union.( Col 2:9, Heb 1:3,2:16)

3. The Communicatio Idiomatum (Communication of the Properties) states that the attributes of His Divine nature and human nature are both ascribed to the one Person of Jesus, the Divine Son who is the 2nd Person of the Trinity. So Jesus can exhibit attributes of Divinity (Omnipresence, Omniscience, Omnipotence, . John 2:23, 3:13, 8:58, He was prayed to in Acts 7:59, John 14:13, He was is worshiped Matt 2:2:11, Rev 5:13-14) and at the same time exhibit attributes of His humanity( He was tempted, ate, prayed,wept, grew in wisdom and stature,was anointed,was baptized, the Father was greater, didn’t know the day or the hour of His Return, He cried My God my God why has Thou forsaken Me, He died etc.). The communicatio idiomatum does not mean that any part of the Divine nature was communicated to the human nature. The Creed of Chalcedon declares that : “in two natures, without confusion, without change, without division, without separation, the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved, and concurring in one persona and one subsistence, not parted or divided into two person, but one and the same Son, and only begotten, God the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ.

4. The Man(anthropos) Jesus is what we perceive (if we were there 2000 years ago in Israel) and through the Man we encounter the Divine nature (Jesus knowing all things, is on earth while in heaven, answers prayer, forgiving sins, etc.).

5. The Person of Jesus will always be both Divine and human. (John 1:1,14,20:28, 1 John 5:20, 1 Timothy 2:5) Those who deny this fact are the spirit of antichrist. (1 John 4:1-4,2 John 7)

6. The Divine Nature is within the Trinity.(Father, Son and Holy Spirit)

7. Since the Person of Jesus claims the attributes of Divinity(John 3:13,8:58,Matthew 9:2,12:8), then the Person of Jesus is one of the Persons in the Trinity.( John 14-16, Math 28:19)

Anything said of either of Christ's two natures applies to the one Person of Christ, so that is how it is said that Christ died on the cross. The term "hypostatic union" refers to the two natures united in the one Person, so anything said of those two natures in the one Person applies to the whole Person. So we see that the Person of Christ is both God and man. The phrase hypostatic union was adopted by the general council at Chalcedon 451 AD. That council declared that the union of two natures is real (against Arius), not a mere indwelling of God in a man (against Nestorius), with a rational soul (against Apollinaris), and that in Christ’s Divine nature remains unchanged (against Eutyches).

We need to look to the Monothelite Controversy which had to deal with whether there was one or two wills/minds in the person of Christ. The outcome was that there were two; one human and one divine with the human subjected to the divine. The eternal Son of God did not assume a part of a human nature without a mind, without a will, without human activity, but He assumed all the things that were planted in our nature by God.

Now then, to act (or in this case, speak) is the work of a person, but the form or nature is the cause of this action; for each person acts in accord with the form or nature which it has. A difference in causes (natures) produces a difference in effects (actions). Therefore, where there are different natures, there are also different activities. So in the one Person of Christ there are two natural actions, the divine and the human, each of which has its own essential attributes, functions, and actions. Jesus was thirty years old according to His human nature (Luke 3:23); according to His divine nature He could say: "Before Abraham was born, I am" (John 8:58). The question is did both natures know this and communicate it to the Person. The answer is yes because the divine nature with its corresponding divine will willed the human nature to respond in such a fashion in keeping with Christ's office and ministry. In the text regarding Mark 13:32, we have a slightly different situation here. Christ is acting (speaking) from His human nature, but, this time, the divine will does not allow the human will access to this knowledge. For this information is not to be published on earth. Therefore, as man, Christ cannot answer the question. In the works pertaining to the office of Christ as Prophet, Priest, and King both natures act in conjunction with each other, each nature doing what is peculiar to the same. The book of Hebrews goes into great detail with these offices.

hope this helps !!!
 
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You need to ask yourself that question not me.
Well, you said 1 Cor. 8:6 is a "game, set, match" so I take it you're calling checkmate with a Unitarian prooftext. "For us there is but one God, the Father" is statement fully compatible with Unitarianism, but is problematic for Trinitarianism. Unless, of course, you are handing the victory to me.
 
Well, you said 1 Cor. 8:6 is a "game, set, match" so I take it you're calling checkmate with a Unitarian prooftext. "For us there is but one God, the Father" is statement fully compatible with Unitarianism, but is problematic for Trinitarianism. Unless, of course, you are handing the victory to me.
no its a trinitarian verse just like John 17:3 is a trinitarian verse that disproves unitarianism.

next fallact
 
I'm a Trinitarian and every one of them on this forum would agree with what I just said. I have written on the H.U. and have a thread of my own work on the topic.

Once again you have no idea about what you are talking about and are misunderstanding and twisting my words like you do with scripture.
Okay let's see.... @TomL @synergy @Dizerner @praise_yeshua @David Koberstein @MTMattie @mikesw @DavidTree @Johann @Joe @JoshebB @TibiasDad @Rockson @Red Baker (sorry if I forgot anyone else, these are the people who just came to mind) do you believe Jesus is fully God and fully man or is the human Jesus not the "God Jesus?" I am referring to the hypostatic union btw.
 
Well, you said 1 Cor. 8:6 is a "game, set, match" so I take it you're calling checkmate with a Unitarian prooftext. "For us there is but one God, the Father" is statement fully compatible with Unitarianism, but is problematic for Trinitarianism. Unless, of course, you are handing the victory to me.
The Red below proves uni's beliefs are false. The context always ia a uni killer just like in John 17:3 which makes the Son equal with the Father just like in 1 Cor 8:6.

yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live.
 
no its a trinitarian verse just like John 17:3 is a trinitarian verse that disproves unitarianism.

next fallact
In Trinitarianism, the only true God isn't the Father. In Trinitarianism, God is defined as a three-in-one being with three persons who are each God yet together are one God. John 17:3, taken at face value, kills trinitarianism.
 
Okay let's see.... @TomL @synergy @Dizerner @praise_yeshua @David Koberstein @MTMattie @mikesw @DavidTree @Johann @Joe @JoshebB @TibiasDad @Rockson @Red Baker (sorry if I forgot anyone else, these are the people who just came to mind) do you believe Jesus is fully God and fully man or is the human Jesus not the "God Jesus?" I am referring to the hypostatic union btw.
I said the following to answer your other question:

Nope His humanity is not His Deity you are conflating and equivocating again.

He is both human and Divine and humanity is not Deity and vice versa. Its why He has 2 natures, not one nature.

Get with the program and stop misrepresenting me like you do the bible. You twist my words like you do with the bible.

You are incapable of proving anything I say contradicts Trinitarian doctrine. I know the Trinity very well and the Hypostatic Union. I'm more familiar with those two doctrines than any other biblical doctrines in Christianity. I have been defending them against the cults for over 40 years.

hope this helps !!!
 
The Red below proves uni's beliefs are false. The context always ia a uni killer just like in John 17:3 which makes the Son equal with the Father just like in 1 Cor 8:6.

yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live.
Did you read the part that says "yet for us there is but one God, the Father?" That's Unitarianism. Game, set, match.
 
I said the following to answer your other question:

Nope His humanity is not His Deity you are conflating and equivocating again.

He is both human and Divine and humanity is not Deity and vice versa. Its why He has 2 natures, not one nature.

Get with the program and stop misrepresenting me like you do the bible. You twist my words like you do with the bible.
That's not the traditional hypostatic union doctrine. Basically, the idea is Jesus is both fully God and fully human. Your version seems to make Jesus into a vessel, in which case he would not be God and his resurrection would have been pointless.
 
Did you read the part that says "yet for us there is but one God, the Father?" That's Unitarianism. Game, set, match.
Did you read the part that says there is One Lord- the Son Jesus Christ through whom everything came and in whom we live.

next fallacy
 
That's not the traditional hypostatic union doctrine. Basically, the idea is Jesus is both fully God and fully human. Your version seems to make Jesus into a vessel, in which case he would not be God and his resurrection would have been pointless.
its the exact historical and orthodox H.U.

next fallacy.
 
its the exact historical and orthodox H.U.

next fallacy.
No. It's not. I am not joking. I sourced Got Questions below. This is the historical and orthodox hypostatic union. I can see why you want to distance yourself from it and change the rules... because it's super vulnerable to debunking.

"The hypostatic union is the term used to describe how God the Son, Jesus Christ, took on a human nature, yet remained fully God at the same time. Jesus always had been God (John 8:58, 10:30), but at the incarnation Jesus became a human being (John 1:14). The addition of the human nature to the divine nature is Jesus, the God-man. This is the hypostatic union, Jesus Christ, one Person, fully God and fully man.

Jesus’ two natures, human and divine, are inseparable. Jesus will forever be the God-man, fully God and fully human, two distinct natures in one Person. Jesus’ humanity and divinity are not mixed, but are united without loss of separate identity. Jesus sometimes operated with the limitations of humanity (John 4:6, 19:28) and other times in the power of His deity (John 11:43; Matthew 14:18-21). In both, Jesus’ actions were from His one Person. Jesus had two natures, but only one personality."

https://www.gotquestions.org/hypostatic-union.html
 
No. It's not. I am not joking. I sourced Got Questions below. This is the historical and orthodox hypostatic union. I can see why you want to distance yourself from it and change the rules... because it's super vulnerable to debunking.

"The hypostatic union is the term used to describe how God the Son, Jesus Christ, took on a human nature, yet remained fully God at the same time. Jesus always had been God (John 8:58, 10:30), but at the incarnation Jesus became a human being (John 1:14). The addition of the human nature to the divine nature is Jesus, the God-man. This is the hypostatic union, Jesus Christ, one Person, fully God and fully man.

Jesus’ two natures, human and divine, are inseparable. Jesus will forever be the God-man, fully God and fully human, two distinct natures in one Person. Jesus’ humanity and divinity are not mixed, but are united without loss of separate identity. Jesus sometimes operated with the limitations of humanity (John 4:6, 19:28) and other times in the power of His deity (John 11:43; Matthew 14:18-21). In both, Jesus’ actions were from His one Person. Jesus had two natures, but only one personality."

https://www.gotquestions.org/hypostatic-union.html
and its nothing different from what I said and posted here on the topic,

next fallacy
 
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