The Bible does not teach to pray to Jesus
- Thread starter Runningman
- Start date
So what? We've already agreed that kurios can be used for both Deity and human.You have not manned up. Just need to show you more examples until you are out of excuses. I have a lot more examples than this.
Abraham was called kurious in the LXX LOL.
Genesis 18:12
ἐγέλασεν δὲ Σαρρα ἐν ἑαυτῇ λέγουσα οὔπω μέν μοι γέγονεν ἕως τοῦ νῦν ὁ δὲ κύριός μου πρεσβύτερος
What needs to be done is to understand if kurios for Jesus is kurios according to the flesh or kurios according to the Spirit. You've failed miserably to prove your point that Jesus is kurios according to the flesh.
Looks like I've got to get another batch of Popcorn
since you keep running away from this question:So stop acting like a weasel and man up.So then tell us when has Christ ever been called Lord "according to the flesh"?
i missed the use with Pharisees, priests, and the High Priest. So far you are proving the point that the use with Jesus is unique. Maybe you can share where the Jews called these prominent people lord or master. Like I mention, you do not understand nuance. Some people are like that.
Afraid not for the one lord is
1 Corinthians 8:6 (NET 2nd ed.) — 6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we live, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we live.
none other than Jesus Christ
BTW Trinitarians affirm God is one
Runningman
Well-known member
So Jesus was given a name? You do realize that being given something implies one didn't always inherently have it right? That calls into question your "Jesus is eternal" doctrine.
Runningman
Well-known member
Wow thank you for agreeing with atleast, and possibly the only, one of my points. I really respect that Synergy despite your constant teasing about running away, weaseling, hallucinating, etc (though I honestly am not sure why you keep saying those things since none of that is actually happening.)So what? We've already agreed that kurios can be used for both Deity and human.
What needs to be done is to understand if kurios for Jesus is kurios according to the flesh or kurios according to the Spirit. You've failed miserably to prove your point that Jesus is kurios according to the flesh.
Looks like I've got to get another batch of Popcorn
So stop acting like a weasel and man up.
That's progress and encourages me to answer you question. Is Jesus both fully divine and fully human according to the hypostatic union doctrine? So Jesus the man and Jesus the God would hypothetically be the same person (a word used for convenience) being right? So Jesus Christ did come in the flesh. Do you agree Jesus came in the flesh?
Runningman
Well-known member
It's not unique. What Jesus taught is in line with Pharasaical theology, especially since he preached about the resurrection (which the Sadducees disagreed with) and Jesus is a Jew and high priest as well. My argument has already been made and nothing else to add except these points unless you have any other statements about that.
It is not contested about Jesus' humanity. He, as the Son of God, being pre-existent and conscious and powerful in heaven descended to earth and born of a woman.
Runningman
Well-known member
God is one of what though?
wow. you really are the one-verse unitarian.
Jesus totally rebuked the Pharisees for hypocrisy and evil doctrines by placing their oral laws over against clear Mosaic laws. I still do not see where religious leaders (Pharisees and/or priests) were being designated as lords by the Jews. This usage is not found in the NT.
God is one and oneness as God. Christ Jesus and the Father are one. They are, as best as we can share ideas, two persons in one Godhead. Boy it is crazy how you miss all the text on this issue
civic
Well-known member
game, set and match- the passage has both the Father/Son Co-Equal in Creation.
end of discussion.
its the unitarian stumbling block- the Son- since they reject Him they reject His salvation for their sins.
It is difficult to find a way that Jesus is not of the Godhead in doing the same act of creation. So it is weird that unitarians think they can dismiss the divinity of Christ in the Godhead here.game, set and match- the passage has both the Father/Son Co-Equal in Creation.
end of discussion.
its the unitarian stumbling block- the Son- since they reject Him they reject His salvation for their sins.
Runningman
Well-known member
On specific points they were rebuked, but the Sadducees were anti-resurrection (Luke 20:27) and tested Jesus on this point. Historically, Pharisees are pro-resurrection, which Jesus is too. What, you have never studied the differences between what Jesus believes and the Jewish sects?
Runningman
Well-known member
Consistently through out the Hebrew, the word one in relation to God being one, refers to singularness. In other words, The God YHWH is a singular God.
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civic
Well-known member
yes they approach the scriptures with a bias- Jesus is not God so any verse which declares or implies He is Theos, Kurios , YHWH they instantly reject.
Runningman
Well-known member
Please show me how in Hebrew culture how theos or kurious refers to exclusively YHWH.
The Sadducees were worse but the Pharisees still were awful. Jesus rejected the Pharisees' oral law and their practices. Jesus has quite a significant departure from the Pharisee's beliefs. Nor were the Pharisees, lawyers, or priests designated as lord or master in their roles.
DavidTree
Well-known member
The man Jesus was not eternal.
The Word that was God is eternal and the Eternal Word became flesh = JESUS
Runningman
Well-known member
Hi David, ever heard of the hypostatic union and would you like to talk about it?
