I am considered a Pentecostal

Here is what I understand.
Tongues in all its varieties is never understood by humans, only by God, although it edifies the speaker when it is given even if no one interprests.
Interpretation of tongues is then gifted to someone in their own language. Despite people claiming they heard the tongue in their own language, they are disagreeing with the word and not understanding the dynamic, though it most likely means they were given the interpretation as the speaker spoke. Just like in the beginning of Acts.
In both sdes of this people have to decide whether or not they will speak.

That is my elementary beginning understanding of these gifts and I like the topic and will gladly show the verses and talke more detail
Not so

Acts 2:4–11 (KJV 1900) — 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. 5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. 6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language. 7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans? 8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born? 9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia, 10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes, 11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.
 
Not so

Acts 2:4–11 (KJV 1900) — 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. 5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. 6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language. 7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans? 8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born? 9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia, 10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes, 11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.
You say I am wrong to teach that only God undesratnds. This verse does not qualify or limit tongues, it just makes a broad statement about the gift:
NASB 1 Cor 14:2 only God understands
 
Not so

Acts 2:4–11 (KJV 1900) — 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. 5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. 6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language. 7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans? 8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born? 9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia, 10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes, 11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.
beacuse of the verse 1 Cor 14:2 which I posted previous verse, it tells me that all that variety of people at pentecost heard in their own language, though the tongues only God understood. The people kept asking, "How is it we hear them in our own language?" My thoughts are that it would be physicall impossible for thousands of people to hear 120 simultaneous speakers and make out anything even in their own language
 
beacuse of the verse 1 Cor 14:2 which I posted previous verse, it tells me that all that variety of people at pentecost heard in their own language, though the tongues only God understood. The people kept asking, "How is it we hear them in our own language?" My thoughts are that it would be physicall impossible for thousands of people to hear 120 simultaneous speakers and make out anything even in their own language
That is because they were speaking in their own language

and 1Cor 14:2 speaks of an unknown lanuage

1 Corinthians 14:2 (KJV 1900) — 2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
 
That is because they were speaking in their own language

and 1Cor 14:2 speaks of an unknown lanuage

1 Corinthians 14:2 (KJV 1900) — 2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
It looks like your positon is based on making a distinction between "speaking in tongues" and "speaking in an unknown tongue"
If I am wrong about your position could you clarify what you believe about those two and why?
But I would also ask for the same clarification regardless of your position. Not just what you belive those two mean, but how you concluded it?
If you are willing

EDIT
Just noticed in the NASB that the word "unknown" is not in the translation or the Greek, so I checked the verse in the KJV
In the KJV, it isn't there either, the word "unknown" is a KJV assumption

In both cases it is just the Greek noun glossa, meaning a language, So how do you get two different things from the same word? Context? Please explain
 
Last edited:
It looks like your positon is based on making a distinction between "speaking in tongues" and "speaking in an unknown tongue"
If I am wrong about your position could you clarify what you believe about those two and why?
But I would also ask for the same clarification regardless of your position. Not just what you belive those two mean, but how you concluded it?
If you are willing
One verse speaks of speaking in an unknown tongue and the other in a tongue known by other men
 
One verse speaks of speaking in an unknown tongue and the other in a tongue known by other men
I added to my post further explanation about how I arrived at my understanding. I had to remind myself how I got there. Please look at the updated post and let me see your reponse to the the 2 or 3 ideas there if you are willing.
I will let it drop if you are not interested
 
It looks like your positon is based on making a distinction between "speaking in tongues" and "speaking in an unknown tongue"
If I am wrong about your position could you clarify what you believe about those two and why?
But I would also ask for the same clarification regardless of your position. Not just what you belive those two mean, but how you concluded it?
If you are willing

EDIT
Just noticed in the NASB that the word "unknown" is not in the translation or the Greek, so I checked the verse in the KJV
In the KJV, it isn't there either, the word "unknown" is a KJV assumption

In both cases it is just the Greek noun glossa, meaning a language, So how do you get two different things from the same word? Context? Please explain
From the context

1 Corinthians 14:1–2 (ESV) — 1 Pursue love, and earnestly desire the spiritual gifts, especially that you may prophesy. 2 For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit.

We have tongues as a spiritual gift

While the word unknown is not present, the concept is

The other verse speaks of a sign which follows the baptism in the Holy Ghost

It was a language understood by men

Acts 2:4–11 (ESV) — 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit gave them utterance. 5 Now there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men from every nation under heaven. 6 And at this sound the multitude came together, and they were bewildered, because each one was hearing them speak in his own language. 7 And they were amazed and astonished, saying, “Are not all these who are speaking Galileans? 8 And how is it that we hear, each of us in his own native language? 9 Parthians and Medes and Elamites and residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10 Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya belonging to Cyrene, and visitors from Rome, 11 both Jews and proselytes, Cretans and Arabians—we hear them telling in our own tongues the mighty works of God.”
 
From the context

1 Corinthians 14:1–2 (ESV) — 1 Pursue love, and earnestly desire the spiritual gifts, especially that you may prophesy. 2 For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit.

We have tongues as a spiritual gift

While the word unknown is not present, the concept is

The other verse speaks of a sign which follows the baptism in the Holy Ghost

It was a language understood by men

Acts 2:4–11 (ESV) — 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit gave them utterance. 5 Now there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men from every nation under heaven. 6 And at this sound the multitude came together, and they were bewildered, because each one was hearing them speak in his own language. 7 And they were amazed and astonished, saying, “Are not all these who are speaking Galileans? 8 And how is it that we hear, each of us in his own native language? 9 Parthians and Medes and Elamites and residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10 Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya belonging to Cyrene, and visitors from Rome, 11 both Jews and proselytes, Cretans and Arabians—we hear them telling in our own tongues the mighty works of God.”
ok. thanks
 
Back
Top Bottom