dwight92070
Well-known member
Please answer this, is the true interpretation of Romans 10:9-10 more important, more God's Word, more authoritative than the wrong interpretation of Romans 10:9-10?That doesn't answer the question. I didn't ask about John 3:16, I asked about Rom 10:9-10. But I will ask a second question, please answer both this time: Is John 3:16 more important, more God's Word, more authoritative than Rom 10:9-10?
Romans 10:9-10 was written by Paul in the mid 50's A.D., or about 25 years after the Day of Pentecost, which was about 30 A.D. If the correct interpretation of these verses is that you must confess Jesus as Lord before you can be saved, then many, if not all who became new believers in, and disciples of Jesus, between 30 A.D. and about 55 A.D. may have never actually been saved. Why would I say this? Because we never see this supposedly true teaching (that confession of Jesus as Lord is required before one can be saved) in the New Testament before 55 A.D., and therefore those new believers did not know that confessing Jesus as Lord was a requirement before they could be saved.
In fact, it is very likely that many Christians had not even read Paul's letter to the Romans until many years after 55 A.D., and therefore did not know this supposedly true teaching that confession of Jesus as Lord was necessary for their salvation.
Doug has mocked me for making this point in the past, but he can't show me one other place in the New Testament, where this erroneous teaching was taught or written BEFORE about 55 A.D. - all the way back to 30 A.D.
If these verses mean what Doug and his ilk say that they mean, then a much more clear teaching of that meaning would be all over the New Testament - but its not.
On the contrary, the teaching that is all over the New Testament is that we are saved by grace through faith, not by confession, not by baptism. or any other works.
Doug also continually misinterprets James 2:24, even though I and many others here have told him that James is not referring to salvation here, but to the faith of someone who is already saved. Even the reference to Abraham in James 2:23, where God reckoned righteousness to him, because of his faith - Was this the point at which Abraham was saved? No, he was already a believer in God before in Genesis 12, when called first called him, at the age of 75. So for Doug to interpret this as the point at which Abram was saved, is obviously a misinterpretation.
I believe Paul is doing the exact same thing in Romans 10:9-10, as James is in James 2:24- i.e. he is referring to the affirmation of one who is already a believer.