Christendom's Trinity: Where Did It Come From?

Jesus is the ONLY Lord, the One Lord
Jesus is the One Lord ---- There is one God, the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ TWO separated individuals NOT collapsed INTO ONE being.

The reason we know that Romans 10:13, although quoted from the OT in reference to YHWH, now refers to the Lord Jesus Christ is because Romans 10:11, also quoted from the OT Isaiah 28:16 which reads:

therefore thus says the Lord GOD (Adonai Yahweh), "Behold, I am the one who has laid as a foundation in Zion, a stone, a tested stone, a precious cornerstone, of a sure foundation: 'Whoever believes will not be in haste (ashamed)." [Isaiah 28:16]

"As you come to him, a living stone rejected by men but in the sight of God chosen and precious, you yourselves like living stones are being built up as a spiritual house, to be a holy priesthood, to offer spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ. For it stands in Scripture: “Behold, I am laying in Zion a stone, a cornerstone chosen and precious, and whoever believes in him will not be put to shame.” (1 Peter 2:4-6)

'So then you are no longer strangers and aliens, but you are fellow citizens with the saints and members of the household of God, built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus himself being the cornerstone' [Ephesians 2:19,20]

Who is the cornerstone? none other than Jesus Christ so these OT scriptures in Romans 10 are in reference to the Lord Jesus Christ - those who call upon the name of the Lord Jesus Christ - (1 Cor. 1:2)

So according to the context, who do we call upon to be saved? 'call upon the name of the Lord', i.e. Jesus Christ.
 
Jesus is the One Lord ---- There is one God, the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ TWO separated individuals NOT collapsed INTO ONE being.

Look at 1 Cor 8:6 is being used.

When Paul writes: "one God , the Father and one Lord, Jesus Christ he is NOT saying that the Father alone is God in nature, and
Jesus is merely a non-divine lord.

Paul is doing something much stronger..... he is redefining monotheism christologically by splitting the Shema (Deut 6:4
which states, "Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one!" between the Father and Jesus.

A first-century Jew could not do that unless Jesus was included within the identity of the one God.






2. “Not collapsed into one being” is a red flag phrase​


The Bible never uses “being” language. That phrase comes from later metaphysical debates, and here it is being used defensively to rule out Jesus’ deity.


In Scripture:


  • Jesus is distinct from the Father ✔
  • Jesus shares in what only God is and does

Denying His deity requires explaining away:


  • Creation through Him (John 1:3)
  • Worship of Him (Rev 5:13–14)
  • Divine titles (Isa 45 → Phil 2)
  • Preexistence (John 1:1)

That author’s wording avoids those issues by redefining the terms upfront.
 
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