Runningman
Active Member
Your previous talking points don't really mean anything now. So provided all of the evidence from the Greek grammar, 1John1:1-3, the Word not being a person in the Old Testament, the anarthrous predicate nominative in John 1:1, and the Word never being God anywhere in the Bible, then there aren't any good reasons to believe your version of John 1:1.Then prove it instead of just sharing Schoenheit grammar. Your ideas do not convince anyone except those who deny the testimony of scripture beforehand.
Uh. That can simply be said God's sincerity. If you want to word it that way, then theos in a genitive concept is not a problem
that is sorrow according to God's will, if you want to go with a wooden translation. a similar idea is in verse 11. This again shows you taking shortcuts in interpretation so you can make another failed argument.
Again, this is a the genitive of theos. It is clearer to say godly jealousy than saying God's jealousy. Never is theos used directly as an adjective form in your examples
This again is the idea of God's stewardship -- but translating for simplicity and ease of reading as "godly"
You are getting too desperate and continuing deeper into sloppy prooftexts.