throughout the entire Bible.
As Paul describes in his letter to Timothy....
ALL scripture is God-Breathed.
as such- Jesus said,
in the volume of the book it is written of me- Psalms 40. Reiterated in Hebrews 10, and alluded to in John 5.
The "All Scripture" that's inspiration of God (God-breathed) is the Hebrew Scripture (Genesis to Malachi.)
Jesus said nothing about any letters or gospels being "God-breathed." All that came about through Gentile handling of Greek texts in order to establish what writings were valid and worth dying for as the reason for the collection of scrolls was in response to persecution of the Jewish Church - and later of the Gentile religion which they attached "Christian" to - because believers were being killed for possessing writings/scrolls from people and writers that were not part of the Gentile "church." The question was would a believer be prepared to die for possessing the "Gospel of Phillip" or the "Gospel of Peter," or other supposed church-related writings.
Thus, it is the Hebrew Scripture that Jesus taught and authorized "beginning from Moses and the prophets," it is the Scripture Peter said "lives and abides forever," and the "All Scripture" Saul said was "God-breathed."
None of the prophets - nor Jesus and Moses - ever said anything about future "Scripture" that was profitable for "doctrine, reproof, correction, and instruction in righteousness" as authoritative for His Church, a Church He promised to build beginning on Pentecost in which three thousand Jews were the foundation of the Jewish Church.
The writings from Matthew including Acts and the letters are without any validation from God, Christ, or Moses.
Surprise!
that just means you're not actually reading, or paying attention to everything.
there are 31,102 verses in the Bible.
you should be paying attention to all of them.
Yeah, but NONE of the record God making a covenant to non-Hebrew Gentiles. NONE.
actually, that's exactly what you're doing.
we refer to that as doctrines of demons, and false teaching.
Nah. It's the Word of God.
This just tells me you're not actually paying attention to whatever you do read.
I know God made covenant with a man identified as "Abram the Hebrew" and with Abram's Hebrew seed; that the Mosaic Covenant through Moses is between God and the children of Israel, and the New Covenant which is the Mosaic Covenant fulfilled by Jesus of Nazareth is between God and the House of Israel and Judah - but there are NO Gentiles in any of these three covenants.
In doing a word search in the Tanakh, I have well over 600 uses of the word, Nations.
It starts in Genesis 12.
So, literally throughout the entire Bible.
Tell me, if you take "nations" to means "Gentile(s)" then tell me how can two Hebrew parents birth a non-Hebrew child?
Abraham and Sarai were from the same descendance of Eber, from where we get the Hebrew word and family. Abraham married Sarai his niece. If Eber is the beginning of the Hebrew race, a race not only separated by obedience to God and a river from the rest of the Adamites who would soon be ruled by Nimrod, separated by ethnicity and then separated by covenant and then still deeper separated by circumcision from the rest of the Adamites with whom God has no covenant.
Gen 12:3 Tanakh-1917 And I will bless them that bless thee, and him that curseth thee will I curse; and in thee shall all the families of the earth be blessed.’
God is talking about his families born through Ishmael and Esau. They were circumcised and in covenant but the promises went through to Isaac and then his son, Jacob. It's a family covenant between God and the Hebrew people. Don't they teach you that?
Through to Malachi.
Mal 1:14 Tanakh-1917But cursed be he that dealeth craftily, Whereas he hath in his flock a male, And voweth, and sacrificeth unto the Lord a blemished thing; For I am a great King, Saith the LORD of hosts, And My name is feared among the nations.
By the time several generations later is when "nations" was also used on not only Abraham's seed of Hebrews but also anyone who was NOT Abraham's seed and here you have your Gentiles. But I ask you a question after you read these passages:
6 And I will make thee exceeding fruitful, and I will make
nations of thee, and
kings shall come
out of thee. Gen. 17:6.
.....and
my covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant. Gen. 17:13.
15 And God said unto Abraham, As for Sarai thy wife, thou shalt not call her name Sarai, but Sarah shall her name be.
16 And I will bless her, and give thee a son also of her: yea, I will bless her, and she shall be a mother of
nations;
kings of people shall be of her. Gen. 17:15–16.
19 And God said, Sarah thy wife shall bear thee a son indeed; and thou shalt call his name Isaac:
and I will establish my covenant with him for an everlasting covenant, and with his seed after him.
20 And as for
Ishmael, I have heard thee: Behold, I have blessed him, and will make him fruitful, and will multiply him exceedingly; twelve princes shall he beget, and
I will make him a great nation.
21 But my covenant will I establish with Isaac, which Sarah shall bear unto thee at this set time in the next year.
Gen. 17:19–21.
Now, let's see if you are a biblical Christian or not. Do you take your understanding from Scripture, or do you allow men's theologies tell you what to believe? Personally, knowing all the Gentile theology textbook responses, and knowing Gentile theology I can tell if you are someone who takes Scripture as written EVEN IF it contradicts with what you've been taught of learned.
Looking at the passages above. Abram was Hebrew from the family of Eber to Noah to Shem, etc., to Abraham. Abraham married his niece (his brother's daughter) and so we have two Hebrews in Abraham and Sarai. Now, look at your definition of "nations." You say it always refers to non-Hebrew Gentiles. And this is where you are wrong. Case in point: ever heard of the nation of Israel? Does the descriptive "nation" mean that this Hebrew people is a nation of Gentiles? No, it doesn't. And at this point you should agree.
In
Genesis 17:6 God says this (He IS the Author of Scripture, right?)
I will make
nations of thee, and
kings shall come
out of thee
Can non-Hebrews come "
of thee" or kings come "
out of thee" (Abraham)? Can non-Hebrews be born to two Hebrew parents?
Now, let's take a look at Genesis 17:13
.....and
my covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant.
"In your flesh" means biologically Hebrew since Abraham is Hebrew and Sarai is Hebrew, and it is in this Hebrew flesh that the covenant is passed to.
On to Genesis 17:15-16. It says:
15 And God said unto Abraham, As for Sarai thy wife, thou shalt not call her name Sarai, but Sarah shall her name be.
16 And I will bless her, and give thee a son also of her: yea, I will bless her, and she shall be a mother of
nations;
kings of people shall be of her.
Again, can two Hebrew parents birth a non-Hebrew Gentile child? These "nations" shall be of her. Here, "nations" cannot be translated to mean Gentile. One more time:
19 And God said, Sarah thy wife shall bear thee a son indeed; and thou shalt call his name Isaac:
and I will establish my covenant with him for an everlasting covenant, and with his seed after him.
20 And as for
Ishmael, I have heard thee: Behold, I have blessed him, and will make him fruitful, and will multiply him exceedingly; twelve princes shall he beget, and
I will make him a great nation.
21 But my covenant will I establish with Isaac, which Sarah shall bear unto thee at this set time in the next year.
Verse 19..."with his seed after him." This cannot mean anything but that Isaac's and Jacob's and his twelve sons and their children, who were strictly when they obeyed God married among their tribes, means that Isaac as a Hebrew who married a Hebrew cousin cannot sire non-Hebrew children. But it does say that through God's promise to Abraham that his seed will be as the stars of heaven, biologically speaking, non-Hebrews cannot be born to Hebrew parents. This is common sense. Do you have common sense. It also says that through Ishmael's twelve sons that they will be a "great nation." Even here, Ishmael being of mixed heritage and the seed of Abraham, God made him a "great nation" of mixed heritage Hebrew-Egyptian and other intermarriages in Canaan who lived in and around Canaan, or in Egypt, of Saudi Arabie, etc.
Follow the text. Think it through. The word "nations" means "massing" as in people which is why it is used of Abraham's seed. They are not Gentile but only a "massing" of people, a "great nation." "Nations" did not come to mean "Gentiles" unless the context was describing non-Hebrews. But the word merely means "massing" [of people] NOT Gentiles.
daily.
Nope.
it's written in both Ezekiel 18, and in 33, God takes no delight in the death of the wicked.
So, you're telling lies in the name of YHVH.
Jesus said that the devil is the father of lies.
God's Word is referring to the death of wicked Hebrews. The Old Testament is a testament of God's dealing with His people the Hebrews. Stop looking at Scripture as though God is dealing with Gentiles. He is not, at least not in the same way He deals with the seed of Abraham, the apple of His eye, His Beloved, His Church, His special people, ABOVE all the people on the face of the earth.
Clearly you are. Otherwise you wouldn't be continuing to lie to people who follow Jesus and are Gentiles, they aren't welcome into the Kingdom of God.
Since the covenant is between Abraham and his seed and God, the mention of "Gentiles" in the NT refers to Hebrews of mixed heritage who grew up as Gentiles in Gentile lands under the heavy influence of Greek culture. For 21 generations since 522BC and even before, when Israel was captured and exiled many lost their Hebrew heritage - especially if the father is Gentile. He would have raised his kids as a Gentile. This was the issue of "Gentiles" and the Jerusalem Council to decide if they should be circumcised. They decided no circumcision, but they did do something that indicates these "Gentiles" were of Hebrew descent, and that was they gave them the Law of Moses to follow. If they were non-Hebrew Gentile, the apostles would NOT have given non-Hebrew Gentiles the Law to follow.
Clearly you aren't reading.
It's a good thing then that Jesus brings us into the Father’s Kingdom, through his blood, and resurrection.
And who's "us"? Gentiles? Nope. There are NO GENTILES in any of the three Hebrew covenants.
We do actually. Through Jesus Christ.
Yep.
You daily tell lies, and believe you're doing YHVH a service.
Which is ironic, because Jesus said people like you would show up.
Joh 16:1-4 WEB 1 “I have said these things to you so that you wouldn’t be caused to stumble. 2 They will put you out of the synagogues. Yes, the time is coming that whoever kills you will think that he offers service to God. 3 They will do these things because they have not known the Father nor me. 4 But I have told you these things so that when the time comes, you may remember that I told you about them. I didn’t tell you these things from the beginning, because I was with you.
You are infected with false Constantinian Gentile theology.
Jesus said, "Scripture CANNOT be broken."
This means no one can add to, subtract from, or otherwise change what has been written in the Word of God through the prophets.
Thus, if the Scripture says God made covenant with Abram the Hebrew and with his seed, then that means his Hebrew seed because as we covered above no non-Hebrews can be born to two Hebrew parents. This means that like the Samaritans who were of mixed heritage, Jesus established that since they were STILL Abraham's seed that they are STILL heirs of the covenant and the promises no matter the dilution of their DNA. IF they were Abraham's seed, then the covenant belongs to them along with the promises. That's all I am saying.
I am also saying what the Scripture doesn't say, and that the Scripture doesn't say anything about the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, ever having made a covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles. NONE.
Do you know of any Scripture in the OT of God making a covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles?
Don't say yes because you'll be lying.