The Importance of The Law of Moses

[TomL]

Why do you take words in context and take them out of context? You and others do that with "world" "every man" "Gentiles" "all men" and others. God's Word is Holy. Israel is holy. Holy things for holy people. Unless you're one to cast that which is holy to dogs?
Yes, you are.

And Isaiah as with ALL the prophets spoke to Israel. Where does God say to apply them to Gentiles?
Where?

Scripture please.

Either the apostles break Scripture by adding non-Hebrew Gentiles into the Hebrew covenant or Gentile interpretation breaks Scripture.
I vote the Gentile interpretations break Scripture.

The Abrahamic covenant promised to bless all the families of the earth

Genesis 12:1–3 (KJV 1900) — 1 Now the LORD had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father’s house, unto a land that I will shew thee: 2 And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing: 3 And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed.

 

[Complete]

The Abrahamic covenant promised to bless all the families of the earth

Genesis 12:1–3 (KJV 1900) — 1 Now the LORD had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father’s house, unto a land that I will shew thee: 2 And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing: 3 And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed.

How? :-

'And He (God) brought him (Abram) forth abroad, and said,
Look now toward heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them:
and He said unto him, So shall thy seed be.
And he believed in the LORD; and He counted it to him for righteousness.'
(Gen 15:5-6)

'What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?
For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.
For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.
But to him that worketh not, but believeth on Him that justifieth the ungodly, His faith is counted for righteousness.
Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the uncircumcision also?
for we say that faith was reckoned to Abraham for righteousness.
How was it then reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision?
Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision.
And he received the sign of circumcision,
a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised:
that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised;
that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:
And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only,
but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham,
which he had being yet uncircumcised.'
(Rom 4:1-12)

Praise God!

 

[TomL]

'And He (God) brought him (Abram) forth abroad, and said,
Look now toward heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them:
and He said unto him, So shall thy seed be.
And he believed in the LORD; and He counted it to him for righteousness.'
(Gen 15:5-6)

'What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?
For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.
For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.
But to him that worketh not, but believeth on Him that justifieth the ungodly, His faith is counted for righteousness.
Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the uncircumcision also?
for we say that faith was reckoned to Abraham for righteousness.
How was it then reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision?
Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision.
And he received the sign of circumcision,
a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised:
that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised;
that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:
And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only,
but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham,
which he had being yet uncircumcised.'
(Rom 4:1-12)

Praise God!

Yes

 

[jeremiah1five]

Gentile theology is unmoored from Hebrew history, culture, language, and theology.

Case in point: There are a few things to consider for the English-speaking Gentiles who translated the Hebrew Scripture which historically, were possessed for centuries by the Hebrew people. When copies of their writings were made the text they copied from were destroyed. Not so with the Greek texts from which were copied by those in the church, even copied upon copies were made of the same text and none were as meticulous as the Hebrews in maintaining their holy writings. The Hebrews largely stayed together even after twelve sons were born to Jacob. God situated them in lots surrounding the Tabernacle. But non-Hebrew Gentiles - and at this time "Gentile" began to be used of non-Hebrew people NOT born to Abraham's seed and they held the majority of all life in whose lungs was the [animating] breath of life.

Moses, up in the Mount brought down words written on stone by the finger of God. This is the beginning of the Holy Scripture Authored by God Himself. These stones were eventually placed in the Ark of the Covenant, a Holy bond by a Holy God with a holy people and Holy Word to kick-start more holy words that became the Pentateuch, the first five books of Moses. How careful were they in keeping God's Word to His holy people safe, and secure? Copying was not as diverse as the Greek texts that were written by many, many non-Hebrew Gentiles in various locations, from the area of Samaria all the way down to Egypt - maybe Ethiopia. And in these location copies were made by people having unauthorized copies of the Greek texts. There was no unifying rules or instruction in copying Greek texts as there were in one location with one people as with the Hebrew seed of Abraham. Besides the Hebrew Scripture there was also oral tradition which was passed down among the thousands of families of Hebrew descent. Individual family histories within the greater history of the Hebrew people were recorded among families. The way the Hebrews kept their records and the way non-Hebrew Gentiles kept their records is the difference between light and day, one people [seed of the woman] kept their records contained, limited, and precise, while the other group of people [non-Hebrew Gentiles] possessed many, many various copies of erroneous copies of the Greek texts completely diverse from the first group. So, although various languages among the non-Hebrew people multiplied, the Hebrew language for the most part was unified and unchanging. So, when looking at the Hebrew Scripture we cannot rightly defer to non-Hebrew people oblivious to Hebrew culture, language, history, and other nuanced particulars of the Hebrew people, we do best to defer to the Hebrews about their Scripture. And here is one thing that one should keep in mind: Let the Hebrews tell their own story. How appropriate is it for ignorant, non-Hebrew Gentiles to relate the history and culture of another ethnic group totally different that the seed of the serpent non-Hebrew Gentiles who do not Have God's Laws, never were commanded in God's Law, never taught their children generation upon generation God's Laws. So, let me reply to those that use this verse below in the Hebrew Scripture to support their Gentile theology, that certain words mean something completely to non-Hebrew Gentiles when translating and copying translations from one Gentile language to the next as opposed to words in the Hebrew Scripture that generation upon generation within their history, culture, and tradition mean one thing else to them. And here is the verse:

1 Now the LORD had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father’s house, unto a land that I will shew thee:
2 And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing:
3 And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed.
Ge 12:1–3.

Two different mindsets approach this verse when interpreting from the Hebrew into King's English (KJV) and into American English - which to the English and linguists has been called "a bastardization of the English King's English" - in order to understand what God has communicated to Moses for the Hebrew people and let me focus on the Hebrew word to the Hebrew people "earth."

In Genesis, the Hebrew word "eretz" (often translated as "earth") is used to refer to the land God promised to Abraham and his descendants, known as the Promised Land. This land is specifically Canaan, which today corresponds to modern-day Israel and surrounding areas.
While "eretz" can also refer to the entire planet Earth, in the context of the Abrahamic covenant, it specifically denotes the land God promised as a special possession to the Israelites.

And who lived in the "earth" of land promised to the Hebrew people? The Hebrew people lived there. So, in interpreting these verse who exactly "of the earth" will be blessed of God? To the Gentile it means all humanity. To the Hebrews it means something else entirely and who you allow to help you understand the Hebrew Scripture - especially the Pentateuch written by Moses - will guide your investigation to the truth.

So, it means to the Hebrew people that all the families of the land promised to Abraham and Abraham's seed know and understand that it is Hebrew families to whom God declares are the blessed and will be blessed of God. The Hebrew people and all their families are blessed and will be blessed because they and they alone enjoy their covenant with the God of the universe ABOVE all people of the earth (and now the word means "everybody" alive.)

6 For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God: the LORD thy God hath chosen thee to be a special people unto himself, above all people that are upon the face of the earth. Deut. 7:6.

The Hebrew people enjoy a special relationship with the God who created them from Adam to Seth, to Enoch, to Noah, to Methuselah, to Eber, to Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, and Jacob's twelve sons, and their families of the earth, or Promised Land, and the covenants of God ae holy and bear the mark of the finger of God in them that is completely missing from every other family alive who claim documents and copies of documents and texts and copies of text from non-Hebrew Gentiles who have handled the Hebrew Word of Life given to the Hebrew people. The last I checked Matthew to Revelation was written by a Hebrew and if we read and study non-Hebrew version of their Hebrew text, I think we need to go to the source and not rely on Gentile misunderstanding of their Holy Scripture and as a Gentile not put a stamp of God's finger in something where He never put His finger and say the Greek, Gentile New Testament has equal footing among the Hebrew people above that which was really written with the finger of God that is found on the face of the planet. The foundation of true, biblical Christianity is not found in the New Testament. It is found in the Hebrew Scripture. The New Testament is only Hebrews coming to understand the New Covenant the families of the earth (Holy Land) found themselves in when their Hebrew Messiah ascended, and the Holy Spirit of Promise PROMISED TO ISRAEL descended upon the Hebrew people and the effect both had on the Abraham and Mosaic Covenants. What New thing was God doing to the (holy) families of "eretz"?

Only a New Covenant promised them by God. And if we truly understand this New Covenant, we will come to the realization that it is only the Mosaic Covenant fulfilled by their Messiah, Jesus Christ, the Savior of the Hebrew people.
NOT EVERYONE.
Deal with it, non-Hebrew Gentile. You're on the outside looking in.

 

[TomL]

Gentile theology is unmoored from Hebrew history, culture, language, and theology.

Case in point: There are a few things to consider for the English-speaking Gentiles who translated the Hebrew Scripture which historically, were possessed for centuries by the Hebrew people. When copies of their writings were made the text they copied from were destroyed. Not so with the Greek texts from which were copied by those in the church, even copied upon copies were made of the same text and none were as meticulous as the Hebrews in maintaining their holy writings. The Hebrews largely stayed together even after twelve sons were born to Jacob. God situated them in lots surrounding the Tabernacle. But non-Hebrew Gentiles - and at this time "Gentile" began to be used of non-Hebrew people NOT born to Abraham's seed and they held the majority of all life in whose lungs was the [animating] breath of life.

Moses, up in the Mount brought down words written on stone by the finger of God. This is the beginning of the Holy Scripture Authored by God Himself. These stones were eventually placed in the Ark of the Covenant, a Holy bond by a Holy God with a holy people and Holy Word to kick-start more holy words that became the Pentateuch, the first five books of Moses. How careful were they in keeping God's Word to His holy people safe, and secure? Copying was not as diverse as the Greek texts that were written by many, many non-Hebrew Gentiles in various locations, from the area of Samaria all the way down to Egypt - maybe Ethiopia. And in these location copies were made by people having unauthorized copies of the Greek texts. There was no unifying rules or instruction in copying Greek texts as there were in one location with one people as with the Hebrew seed of Abraham. Besides the Hebrew Scripture there was also oral tradition which was passed down among the thousands of families of Hebrew descent. Individual family histories within the greater history of the Hebrew people were recorded among families. The way the Hebrews kept their records and the way non-Hebrew Gentiles kept their records is the difference between light and day, one people [seed of the woman] kept their records contained, limited, and precise, while the other group of people [non-Hebrew Gentiles] possessed many, many various copies of erroneous copies of the Greek texts completely diverse from the first group. So, although various languages among the non-Hebrew people multiplied, the Hebrew language for the most part was unified and unchanging. So, when looking at the Hebrew Scripture we cannot rightly defer to non-Hebrew people oblivious to Hebrew culture, language, history, and other nuanced particulars of the Hebrew people, we do best to defer to the Hebrews about their Scripture. And here is one thing that one should keep in mind: Let the Hebrews tell their own story. How appropriate is it for ignorant, non-Hebrew Gentiles to relate the history and culture of another ethnic group totally different that the seed of the serpent non-Hebrew Gentiles who do not Have God's Laws, never were commanded in God's Law, never taught their children generation upon generation God's Laws. So, let me reply to those that use this verse below in the Hebrew Scripture to support their Gentile theology, that certain words mean something completely to non-Hebrew Gentiles when translating and copying translations from one Gentile language to the next as opposed to words in the Hebrew Scripture that generation upon generation within their history, culture, and tradition mean one thing else to them. And here is the verse:

1 Now the LORD had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father’s house, unto a land that I will shew thee:
2 And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing:
3 And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed.
Ge 12:1–3.

Two different mindsets approach this verse when interpreting from the Hebrew into King's English (KJV) and into American English - which to the English and linguists has been called "a bastardization of the English King's English" - in order to understand what God has communicated to Moses for the Hebrew people and let me focus on the Hebrew word to the Hebrew people "earth."

In Genesis, the Hebrew word "eretz" (often translated as "earth") is used to refer to the land God promised to Abraham and his descendants, known as the Promised Land. This land is specifically Canaan, which today corresponds to modern-day Israel and surrounding areas.
While "eretz" can also refer to the entire planet Earth, in the context of the Abrahamic covenant, it specifically denotes the land God promised as a special possession to the Israelites.

Um even Jewish based translations read earth not land

Genesis 12:3 (Tanakh) — 3 I will bless those who bless you And curse him that curses you; And all the families of the earth Shall bless themselves by you.”

Genesis 12:3 (CJB) — 3 I will bless those who bless you, but I will curse anyone who curses you; and by you all the families of the earth will be blessed.”

BTW eretz is not the Hebrew word translated earth in Gen 12:3

Text Analysis Go to Parallel Hebrew Strong's Hebrew English Morphology 1288 [e] וַאֲבָֽרֲכָה֙ wa-’ă-ḇā-ră-ḵāh And I will bless Conj-w | V-Piel-ConjImperf.Cohort-1cs 1288 [e] מְבָ֣רְכֶ֔יךָ mə-ḇā-rə-ḵe-ḵā, those who bless you V-Piel-Prtcpl-mpc | 2ms 7043 [e] וּמְקַלֶּלְךָ֖ ū-mə-qal-lel-ḵā and him who curses you Conj-w | V-Piel-Prtcpl-msc | 2ms 779 [e] אָאֹ֑ר ’ā-’ōr; I will curse V-Qal-Imperf-1cs 1288 [e] וְנִבְרְכ֣וּ wə-niḇ-rə-ḵū and shall be blessed Conj-w | V-Nifal-ConjPerf-3cp בְךָ֔ ḇə-ḵā, in you Prep | 2ms 3605 [e] כֹּ֖ל kōl all N-msc 4940 [e] מִשְׁפְּחֹ֥ת miš-pə-ḥōṯ the families N-fpc 127 [e] הָאֲדָמָֽה׃ hā-’ă-ḏā-māh. of the earth Art | N-fs

 

[synergy]

Gentile theology is unmoored from Hebrew history, culture, language, and theology.

Case in point: There are a few things to consider for the English-speaking Gentiles who translated the Hebrew Scripture which historically, were possessed for centuries by the Hebrew people. When copies of their writings were made the text they copied from were destroyed. Not so with the Greek texts from which were copied by those in the church, even copied upon copies were made of the same text and none were as meticulous as the Hebrews in maintaining their holy writings. The Hebrews largely stayed together even after twelve sons were born to Jacob. God situated them in lots surrounding the Tabernacle. But non-Hebrew Gentiles - and at this time "Gentile" began to be used of non-Hebrew people NOT born to Abraham's seed and they held the majority of all life in whose lungs was the [animating] breath of life.

Where did you get the idea that it was the English-speaking Gentiles, who translated the Hebrew Scripture, that would then destroy the text that they copied from? Where are your sources? We don't promote revisionst history attempts here. The same goes for the rest of your ethnic cleansing history lesson. Give us your sources. The Judaizing Ethnic-Cleansing History-Revising Society of America does not count as a legitimate source.

 

[jeremiah1five]

Where did you get the idea that it was the English-speaking Gentiles, who translated the Hebrew Scripture, that would then destroy the text that they copied from? Where are your sources? We don't promote revisionst history attempts here. The same goes for the rest of your ethnic cleansing history lesson. Give us your sources. The Judaizing Ethnic-Cleansing History-Revising Society of America does not count as a legitimate source.

The KJV translators were English.
And they were not Hebrew.

 

[Complete]

'For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law:
and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
(For not the hearers of the law are just before God,
but the doers of the law shall be justified.
For when the Gentiles, which have not the law,
do by nature the things contained in the law,
these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts,
their conscience also bearing witness,
and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another )
In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ
according to my gospel.'
(Rom 2:12-16)

Hello @jeremiah1five,

The law was never given to Gentiles, it was given to the children of Israel as part of the covenant made between God and His People Israel from mount Sinai, under the Mediation of Moses. The only law that the Gentile has is the law of conscience, and that is what he will be judged by.

In Christ Jesus
Chris

 

[jeremiah1five]

'For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law:
and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
(For not the hearers of the law are just before God,
but the doers of the law shall be justified.
For when the Gentiles, which have not the law,
do by nature the things contained in the law,
these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts,
their conscience also bearing witness,
and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another )
In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ
according to my gospel.'
(Rom 2:12-16)

Hello @jeremiah1five,

The law was never given to Gentiles, it was given to the children of Israel as part of the covenant made between God and His People Israel from mount Sinai, under the Mediation of Moses. The only law that the Gentile has is the law of conscience, and that is what he will be judged by.

In Christ Jesus
Chris

Excellent response.
But you did not post what's known as the Noahide Laws:

The Noahide Laws are a set of seven moral commandments given by God to Noah and his descendants after the Great Flood. According to Jewish tradition, these laws are considered a universal moral code binding upon all humanity, regardless of religious affiliation.

The Seven Laws​

1. Do not worship idols.
   
   
2. Do not blaspheme God.
   
   
3. Do not murder.
   
   
4. Do not engage in illicit sexual relationships.
   
   
5. Do not steal.
   
   
6. Do not eat flesh torn from a living animal.
   
   
7. Establish courts of justice.
   

While the Noahide Laws are derived from Jewish tradition, they have been embraced and studied by various religious and philosophical thinkers throughout history. These are the only laws in which Hebrew and non-Hebrew must obey (these laws were given to the mass of people called Adamites as the Hebrew people did not develop until after Shem's descendants set the stage for the separation between Covenant seed of the woman and non-covenant seed of the serpent. But towards the Hebrew people you know God went a thousand steps further. He made a covenant with then-appearing Hebrew people. All He asked was circumcision (Abraham), and obedience (Mosaic.) Neither requires faith in these covenants. And as you may well know the New Covenant is only the Mosaic Covenant fulfilled by and in Christ and applies to the Houses of Israel and Judah as per Jeremiah 31:31-34.

 

[Complete]

Excellent response.
But you did not post what's known as the Noahide Laws:

The Noahide Laws are a set of seven moral commandments given by God to Noah and his descendants after the Great Flood. According to Jewish tradition, these laws are considered a universal moral code binding upon all humanity, regardless of religious affiliation.

The Seven Laws​

1. Do not worship idols.
   
   
2. Do not blaspheme God.
   
   
3. Do not murder.
   
   
4. Do not engage in illicit sexual relationships.
   
   
5. Do not steal.
   
   
6. Do not eat flesh torn from a living animal.
   
   
7. Establish courts of justice.

While the Noahide Laws are derived from Jewish tradition, they have been embraced and studied by various religious and philosophical thinkers throughout history. These are the only laws in which Hebrew and non-Hebrew must obey (these laws were given to the mass of people called Adamites as the Hebrew people did not develop until after Shem's descendants set the stage for the separation between Covenant seed of the woman and non-covenant seed of the serpent. But towards the Hebrew people you know God went a thousand steps further. He made a covenant with then-appearing Hebrew people. All He asked was circumcision (Abraham), and obedience (Mosaic.) Neither requires faith in these covenants. And as you may well know the New Covenant is only the Mosaic Covenant fulfilled by and in Christ and applies to the Houses of Israel and Judah as per Jeremiah 31:31-34.

Hello @jeremiah1five,

These are not mentioned in Scripture are they?

In Romans chapter two Paul refers to the law of Moses and the law of conscience only, for those are the two that come into play in regard to judgment in that day that God will judge the secrets of men's hearts. Forgive me, but Jewish tradition in my mind has much to answer for.

Though It becomes apparent when reading the old testament prior to the giving of the law of Moses that laws of some nature existed, though for the moment I cannot think of an example to give you, The laws of Hammurabe - Babylonian in origin.

Thank you for sharing.
In Christ Jesus
Chris

 

[SteveB]

It's not ironic.

It's ironic because you keep slapping others while only hitting yourself and you don't actually see it, or appear to feel your hand hitting your own face, repeatedly...

Words spoken to Israel - NOT Gentiles.

On behalf of Gentiles who turn to YHVH from their sin and place their trust in Jesus.

Saul quoted that to Jews and Jewish Christians.

rather curious thing about this.
I'm not referring to Paul’s letters.
I'm referring to Isaiah's warning.
it's also pretty clear that Jesus quoted it to his hearers, in Matthew, Mark, and Luke, and John referred to it in his gospel.

Mat 13:14 WEB In them the prophecy of Isaiah is fulfilled, which says, ‘By hearing you will hear, and will in no way understand; Seeing you will see, and will in no way perceive;

They were never spoken to Gentiles, and it would break and violate Scripture to apply them to Gentiles today or at any time.

Jesus clearly applies Scripture to Gentiles.
Otherwise he wouldn't have told them apostles to preach the gospel of the Kingdom to the whole world, making disciples, of all the nations.

Definitely understand that Gentiles were never included in ANY of the three Hebrew covenants.

Apparently you're ignoring several passages describing the invitation to Gentiles throughout the Bible.

No worries.
You keep people from experiencing the life and love of God through Jesus.
I.e., you do you.

 

[synergy]

The KJV translators were English.
And they were not Hebrew.

You did not answer my question. Were they the ones who did the following. If so, where is your proof?

When copies of their writings were made the text they copied from were destroyed.

 

[jeremiah1five]

Hello @jeremiah1five,

These are not mentioned in Scripture are they?

In Romans chapter two Paul refers to the law of Moses and the law of conscience only, for those are the two that come into play in regard to judgment in that day that God will judge the secrets of men's hearts. Forgive me, but Jewish tradition in my mind has much to answer for.

Though It becomes apparent when reading the old testament prior to the giving of the law of Moses that laws of some nature existed, though for the moment I cannot think of an example to give you, The laws of Hammurabe - Babylonian in origin.

Thank you for sharing.
In Christ Jesus
Chris

That is the thing about learning about beginnings from a Gentile bible and Hebrew records and oral and other historical text not available to non-Hebrews unless you do a precise search. Believe me, if you were to search reputable Hebrew archives there will be enough to make you think twice about what you know and believe.
And why.

 

[synergy]

That is the thing about learning about beginnings from a Gentile bible and Hebrew records and oral and other historical text not available to non-Hebrews unless you do a precise search. Believe me, if you were to search reputable Hebrew archives there will be enough to make you think twice about what you know and believe.
And why.

From all the way back to the 3rd century BC, the OT was made available to all non-Hebrews in the form of the Septuagint (LXX). It's only when the Apostles elucidated the significance of Jesus' Life, Death, and Resurrection in Greek Text (with many references to the LXX) did the Gentile world get it.

 

[Quintus5]

So, you're saying God placed a curse upon His sheep?
So, you're saying the Law of Moses is an instrument of slavery?
So, you're saying that Abraham and his seed were not children of God until Christ died?

So, you're saying the Law of Moses is a bondage? God delivered the children of Israel out of bondage of Egypt and place a new bondage upon His covenant people?

The Law of Christ IS the Law of Moses. Christ is God. Christ gave His Law to Moses for the people of God. Therefore, the Law of Christ/God is the Law He gave to Moses.

Can you provide Scripture for the above you have in bold

There is a difference between the Law of Moses and the Law of God. Moses law was ceremonial--that was the law contained in ordinances, God's Law was and is eternal. We will be judged by it

 

[jeremiah1five]

It's ironic because you keep slapping others while only hitting yourself and you don't actually see it, or appear to feel your hand hitting your own face, repeatedly...

And you can't answer the questions.
Abraham's relationship with God was already existing when we come to Genesis 12:1.
Follow the family line from Adam to Seth....

On behalf of Gentiles who turn to YHVH from their sin and place their trust in Jesus.

There are no non-Hebrew Gentiles in ANY of the salvation covenants God made with the family of Eber and the one that's recorded is Abraham's. The seed of the woman was in the loins of Adam as Levi was in the loins of Abraham. God has ALWAYS had His people on the planet even though they hadn't been born yet. With the creation of Adam God has always had His people in existence just not born yet. By telling the serpent, "And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel" God providentially declares at the moment He uttered it the existence of God's Son in the womb of Eve and the loins of Adam. Prophecy is yesterday, today, and forever as Christ Jesus is yesterday, today, and forever. Remember that.

rather curious thing about this.
I'm not referring to Paul’s letters.
I'm referring to Isaiah's warning.
it's also pretty clear that Jesus quoted it to his hearers, in Matthew, Mark, and Luke, and John referred to it in his gospel.

The Word of God through the prophets is to and for the Hebrew people to whom God sent His prophets in the first place. The context is always them. But the Gentile theft of Israel's inheritance even extends to taking this truth and applying it to themselves. What I Isaiah uttered and wrote was to and for the Hebrew people and terms like "world" is the Greek word - for there's no other word to identify them - understood in context to whom God's Word is sent.
"For God so loved the world...." means the "world of Hebrews." For how can there be any other identification of "world" appearing to have a "choice" to accept Jesus when they are ALREADY CONDEMNED?"

16 For God so loved the world (OF HEBREWS), that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world (OF HEBREWS); but that the world (OF HEBREWS) through him might be saved.
18 He (THE HEBREWS) that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not (THE NON-HEBREW GENTILES) is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

Stop right there. How can Abraham and His seed have any condemnation upon them from God's perspective, which is the perspective of the eternal, since the covenant God makes with Abraham is OF ETERNAL LIFE and Abraham cannot be both - condemned and not condemned? The plan of eternal life did not begin with the prophecy of the Promised "seed of the woman." It began in eternity - IN GOD - in the Heavenly Tabernacle when a lamb was slain from [BEFORE] the foundation (CREATION) of the world. THEN God created sinful man and from sinful man is taking out a people that lamb slain from [BEFORE] the foundation (CREATION) of the world was sacrificed for. Are you following? The election and non-election of man was already settled in the Mind of God when He contemplated His people before He created heaven, earth, and man. What does it say? "For ever, O LORD, Thy word is settled in heaven." Ps 119:89?
This means the not condemned and the already condemned were settled in heaven before creation.
Read on:

19 And this is the condemnation, that light [CHRIST] is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light [CHRIST], because their deeds were evil.
20 For every one that doeth evil hateth the light [CHRIST], neither cometh to the light [CHRIST], lest his deeds should be reproved.
21 But he that doeth truth cometh to the light [CHRIST], that his deeds may be made manifest, that they are wrought in God.
Jn 3:15–21.

This non-Hebrew Gentile CANNOT come to the light (CHRIST) NEITHER comes to the light (CHRIST) BECAUSE his evil deeds were already settled in heaven as non-elect to do evil deeds that God has not atoned. That's why they are already condemned.
It cannot refer to the "world of Hebrews" but the world of non-Hebrew Gentiles who have no salvation covenant made with God. There is distinction in John 3:16-21. Find it, it's there. The Scripture is always in context to the Hebrew people of God and you need to be careful with terms like "world" and "all men" etc.

Mat 13:14 WEB In them the prophecy of Isaiah is fulfilled, which says, ‘By hearing you will hear, and will in no way understand; Seeing you will see, and will in no way perceive;

Jesus clearly applies Scripture to Gentiles.
Otherwise he wouldn't have told them apostles to preach the gospel of the Kingdom to the whole world, making disciples, of all the nations.

That interpretation BREAKS Scripture for the holding and possession of God's Holy Word is given to the Hebrews and is in their possession. This is supported by the ways and means of the Hebrew copying of their Scripture. There are not hundreds of non-Hebrew Gentiles who copied the Hebrew Scripture to the extent they had copying the Greek texts. There are nearly 10,000 manuscripts. texts, and fragments of texts of the New Covenant writings (NT) in existence and only a handful of copies of the Hebrew Scripture in completed form. So, NO, the Word of God (Hebrew Scriptures written by Hebrews) and the New Covenant writings (written by Hebrews and Hebrew Christians) is TO and FOR the Hebrew people. God does not give that which is holy to dogs (unholy.)

Apparently you're ignoring several passages describing the invitation to Gentiles throughout the Bible.

No worries.
You keep people from experiencing the life and love of God through Jesus.
I.e., you do you.

As per the scattering plan of God of the Hebrew people into the "world" of Gentile lands their intermarriage, rape, concubinages, and slavery, Hebrews did have many unions with non-Hebrew Gentiles, and they are called "Gentile" and not a Hebrew/Jew [person] in the same fashion the Samaritans were called Samaritan and not a Hebrew/Jew [person] by the more full-blooded Jews. Jews did not like that Jews intermixed with Gentiles and sired a people of mixed heritage because to them God made covenant with the Hebrews and their handling of mixed heritage Hebrew/Jews was rejected by Christ in the interaction between Christ and the Samaritan woman at the well in John 4.

Where in Scripture do you find any verse that says non-Hebrew Gentiles were in ANY of the three Hebrew covenants? Go ahead and post them if you can find them. But the place to look is for the Abraham Covenant in Genesis 12, 15, and 17, and there are no non-Hebrew Gentiles in this covenant mentioned or named when the covenant was made. Same with the Mosaic Covenant between God and the children of Israel. And the New Covenant prophesied by Jeremiah. He clearly states this covenant is between God and the Houses of both Israel and Judah. If there is any mention of non-Hebrew Gentiles, it is never mentioned in Scripture in the context of covenant, which is why having your foundation sound about what the Scripture says is extremely important when reading and studying the Hebrew Scriptures (OT/NT) else you will end up with the garbage you believe in and are breaking Scripture with.

FIND ME SCRIPTURE THAT SAYS NON-HEBREW GENTILES ARE IN ANY OF THE THREE HEBREW COVENANTS. If you can be precise and rightly divide the Scripture, then you won't find such a thing. But your ignorance and Gentile bias is pushing the envelope way, way too far.

I've been asking everyone to post their proof, but NO ONE can do it because in their heart of hearts they KNOW there is no covenant between God and non-Hebrew Gentiles in the Scripture made in the same fashion as the Noah Covenant, Abraham Covenant, Mosaic Covenant, and New Covenant where God says in each of them:

8 And God spake unto Noah, and to his sons with him, saying, 9 And I, behold, I establish my covenant with you, and with your seed after you; Gen. 9:8.

18 In the same day the LORD made a covenant with Abram, saying, Unto thy seed have I given this land, from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the river Euphrates: Gen. 15:18.

2 And I will make my covenant between me and thee, and will multiply thee exceedingly. Gen. 17:2.

4 As for me, behold, my covenant is with thee, Gen. 17:4.

7 And I will establish my covenant between me and thee and thy seed after thee in their generations for an everlasting covenant, to be a God unto thee, and to thy seed after thee. Gen. 17:7.

10 This is my covenant, which ye shall keep, between me and you and thy seed after thee; Gen. 17:10.

19 And God said, Sarah thy wife shall bear thee a son indeed; and thou shalt call his name Isaac: and I will establish my covenant with him for an everlasting covenant, and with his seed after him. Gen. 17:19.

21 But my covenant will I establish with Isaac. Gen. 17:21.

5 Now therefore, if ye will obey my voice indeed, and keep my covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto me above all people: for all the earth is mine: Exodus 19:4–5.

31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, That I will make a new covenant With the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: Jeremiah 31:31.

33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; Jeremiah 31:33.

20 Likewise also the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed for you. Lk 22:20.


TAKE A LOOK. THESE ARE ALL COVENANTS MADE BY GOD.

IS THERE ANYTHING LIKE THIS IN SCRIPTURE PROVING GOD MAKING A COVENANT WITH NON-HEBREW GENTILES?

C'mon. Post the Scripture that says such a thing with covenant language, covenant intent, and covenant terms.

I am still waiting for your proof. I am waiting for ANYONE'S proof from Scripture God made covenant with Gentiles.

IF YOU CAN'T POST THEM THEN YOU ARE ALL LIARS. EVERYONE OF YOU THAT SAY GENTILES ARE BORN AGAIN AND SAVED.

YOU ARE ALL LIARS and GOD HATES LIARS AND GOD HATES YOU!!!

[Edited]

 

[jeremiah1five]

You did not answer my question. Were they the ones who did the following. If so, where is your proof?

The KJV was translated by English Puritans. They were given permission by the King (James 1) of England and after six years English Gentiles published the Gentile KJV bible. They used copies of texts that were authored by Jewish Christians (Matthew, James, Saul, Peter, etc.) copied by Gentiles, translated by Gentiles and all this occurred from the first century to the 1611 KJV translation. Don't you know bible history?

 

[jeremiah1five]

From all the way back to the 3rd century BC, the OT was made available to all non-Hebrews in the form of the Septuagint (LXX). It's only when the Apostles elucidated the significance of Jesus' Life, Death, and Resurrection in Greek Text (with many references to the LXX) did the Gentile world get it.

The Septuagint was made by Hellenists living in Gentile lands, but the Hebrew people of the Second Temple era had the Hebrew Scriptures by Moses and the prophets.
The Sept. was made to and for them, NOT non-Hebrews.
There is no record of any non-Hebrew in the years leading up to the Lord's birth and while He lived of claiming to be in good standing with the Jews or claiming they are in the Abraham Covenant basing that on Galatians 3:28-29.

It's just a bunch of crap.

 

[jeremiah1five]

There is a difference between the Law of Moses and the Law of God. Moses law was ceremonial--that was the law contained in ordinances, God's Law was and is eternal. We will be judged by it

There is no difference between the Law of Moses and the Law of God.

And the Law, Psalms, and the Prophets is eternal because it is God's Word and God is eternal.

But then there are stupid people that say the Law of God/Law of Moses is abolished or obsolete.

And besides being judged as a non-Hebrew, non-covenant Gentile it will also be His Word through me in sites like this that will judge you and others.

 

[synergy]

The KJV was translated by English Puritans. They were given permission by the King (James 1) of England and after six years English Gentiles published the Gentile KJV bible. They used copies of texts that were authored by Jewish Christians (Matthew, James, Saul, Peter, etc.) copied by Gentiles, translated by Gentiles and all this occurred from the first century to the 1611 KJV translation. Don't you know bible history?

Speaking of the "bunch of crap" that you said, you're still not forwarding evidence that they destroyed the text that they copied from as you claimed here:

When copies of their writings were made the text they copied from were destroyed.