charismaticlady
Active member
Hi there. Your comment earlier made me wonder what the problem was with other members. Lets see where I fit in. LOLAs far as the Word that "became" flesh goes, as I already pointed out above, it doesn't match how this word is used in Scripture. We can work with the idea that the Word "became" flesh but became doesn't suggest an incarnation based on how it's used in the New Testament.
If that were true, as I already pointed out above, that would mean that when "there arose" a great storm in Matthew 8:24 that it the storm existed as something else before it was a storm, yet still retained the nature of a storm, but that isn't how storms coming into being. They are caused by the effect of wind, temperature, pressure and other factors that give rise to the conditions in which a storm can develop. Furthermore, when Jesus spoke to the storm, the weather became perfectly calm in Matthew 8:26. If we apply your incarnated word idea to Matthew 8:24-26 based on your interpretation of "became" in John 1:14, then the seas were calmed by Jesus' words rather than words of Jesus themselves becoming a calm sea.
There are hundreds of examples like this all over the New Testament that don't match what you're saying. Your idea about an incarnate Word is unprecedented.
It all has to do with impregnating Mary, a virgin. Jesus was born incapable of sinning because it was the seed of the Father that impregnated Mary. Then moving ahead and seeing how the life of Jesus having no desire to sin is a foreshadowing of how human beings can go from having a sin nature to a nature that can no longer willfully sin against the laws of God called "born again of the Spirit." 1 John 3:9 "Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God."
Do you still agree with me?