Then why was God already forgiving sins without sacrifices in the OT? Look it up before you ask me.
I do not see this but if or if not it would be for the same reason Jesus was sent to the lost sheep, from the OT
However:
Go restudy the first part of Hebrews 10 We are all familiar with the Jewish sacrifices of the Old Testament and we understand that they were intended as a foreshadowing of the great and last sacrifice of the Savior. Here are the verses.
10 For the Law, since it has
only a shadow of the good things to come
and not the very form of things, can never, by the same sacrifices which they offer continually year by year, make perfect those who draw near.
2. Otherwise, would they not have ceased to be offered, because the worshipers, having once been cleansed, would no longer have had consciousness of sins?
3. But in those
sacrifices there is a reminder of sins year by year.
4. For it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins.
5.Therefore, when He comes into the world, He says,
“Sacrifice and offering You have not desired,
But a body You have prepared for Me;
6. In whole burnt offerings and
sacrifices for sin You have taken no pleasure.
7. Then I said, ‘Behold, I have come
(In the scroll of the book it is written of Me)
To do Your will, O God.’”
8. After saying above, “Sacrifices and offerings and whole burnt offerings and
sacrifices for sin You have not desired, nor have You taken pleasure
in them” (which are offered according to the Law),
9. He said, “Behold, I have come to do Your will.” He takes away the first in order to establish the second.
10. By this will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
I know you will not understand. That's alright. We do.