Runningman
Well-known member
This is very inconsistent. John 17:5 speaks of Jesus' glory before the world was and you say that means he pre-existed. Revelation 13:8 says Jesus was slain before the world was and yet to you it doesn't refer to pre-existence. Yet when other people are brought into the mix, you completely switch ideas and say they didn't pre-exist. The only understanding of all of this that merrys up things the Bible says, nicely, is that people can pre-exist in God's plans and it is as if God knows them, understands them, and glorifies them in an intimate way without them actually having pre-existed. (we're still waiting on verses about where Jesus pre-existed in the OT)Is that the only suggestion you have for these verses?
Do you not have the NT to inform you of the greater revelation of God to humanity? You make up foreknowledge even though that does not imply existence. The verse speaks of existence. THen John 17:24 speaks against of existence before having the physical incarnation as Jesus. So Rev 13:8 can speak of the plan of Jesus from the disruption or foundation of the world. Then Ephesians 1:4 is not have to be pre-existence of individual people but rather that people would be in Christ as planned early on.
You lack any substance though you try to find proof texts for your denial of the deity of Christ in the Godhead. You should seek to understand Christ instead of just denying who he is.
Another example is Jeremiah. God know him before he was even born. How is that possible if Jeremiah didn't actually exist?
Jeremiah 1
5Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations.