Salvation and Unitarians

Circular. Capital-LORD never refers to Jesus. I proved it in the NLT translation that Acts 2:21 does not refer to Jesus.
ERROR, who is the First and the Last? think before you answer. Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he." is the First and the Last the same one person? think before you answer.

@Wrangler,
Matthew 1:21 "And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins." Matthew 1:22 "Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying," Matthew 1:23 "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us."

101G.
 
I proved it in the NLT translation that Acts 2:21 does not refer to Jesus.
listen, to the interchange. Genesis 15:1 "After these things the word of the LORD came unto Abram in a vision, saying, Fear not, Abram: I am thy shield, and thy exceeding great reward." Genesis 15:2 "And Abram said, Lord GOD, what wilt thou give me, seeing I go childless, and the steward of my house is this Eliezer of Damascus?"

is the Lord in verse 2 the same "LORD" in verse 1?

or is the Lord" in Psalms 110:1 and Psalms 110:5 the Same person who is the "LORD" in Psalms 110:1 yes or no.

101G.
 
Circular. Capital-LORD never refers to Jesus. I proved it in the NLT translation that Acts 2:21 does not refer to Jesus.
well one more. Joel 2:28 "And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions:"

when did the "LORD" have a "spirit", that's a small case "s" in spirit. ........ well? Acts 2:33 "Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear."
HOLD IT, did God LIE? (God forbid). but in Joel God, the LORD said he will pour out his "spirit", but it is JESUS who is pouring out his .... notice "Spirit". the cap "S" in Spirit. Uh O!.

101G.
 
how are you using the term Son of God? biologically, or spiritually? which one.

101G.
Neither. It's a title. God and Lord are titles like mister. Mister Moses. Lord Moses.

The idea that Jesus is God incarnate is completely absent from Scripture. I find it disturbing that trinitarians act as though it is the central message.

It's disturbing because such IDOLATRY displaces the central message of Scripture. Excerpts from Ephesians 1: God is the Father of our Lord Jesus; God will being everything together through Jesus; we do no receive our inheritance (of ever lasting life) from Jesus but God. The Spirit is NOT Jesus's guarantee but God's guarentee of our inheritance.

3 All praise to God, the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly realms because we are united with Christ. 4 Even before he made the world, God loved us and chose us in Christ to be holy and without fault in his eyes. 5 God decided in advance to adopt us into his own family by bringing us to himself through Jesus Christ. ...
9 God has now revealed to us his mysterious will regarding Christ—which is to fulfill his own good plan. 10 And this is the plan: At the right time he will bring everything together under the authority of Christ—everything in heaven and on earth. 11 Furthermore, because we are united with Christ, we have received an inheritance from God,[c] for he chose us in advance, and he makes everything work out according to his plan.
12 God’s purpose was that we Jews who were the first to trust in Christ would bring praise and glory to God. 13 And now you Gentiles have also heard the truth, the Good News that God saves you. And when you believed in Christ, he identified you as his own[d] by giving you the Holy Spirit, whom he promised long ago. 14 The Spirit is God’s guarantee that he will give us the inheritance he promised and that he has purchased us to be his own people. He did this so we would praise and glorify him.
Excerpts from 1 COR 15:

45 The Scriptures tell us, “The first man, Adam, became a living person.”[h]But the last Adam—that is, Christ—is a life-giving Spirit. 46 What comes first is the natural body, then the spiritual body comes later. 47 Adam, the first man, was made from the dust of the earth, while Christ, the second man, came from heaven. ...
51 But let me reveal to you a wonderful secret. We will not all die, but we will all be transformed! 52 It will happen in a moment, in the blink of an eye, when the last trumpet is blown. For when the trumpet sounds, those who have died will be raised to live forever. And we who are living will also be transformed. 53 For our dying bodies must be transformed into bodies that will never die; our mortal bodies must be transformed into immortal bodies.
If the trinity were true, much of the Bible would not be written the way it is. The juxtaposition of God with Jesus would never be. Ephesians 1:3 would not exist, which tells us the God of Jesus is our Father.
 
Neither. It's a title. God and Lord are titles like mister. Mister Moses. Lord Moses.
well now a title, is "word" a title? yes, listen, 1 Peter 1:10 "Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you:" 1 Peter 1:11 "Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow."

now is not the Word the LORD GOD who came to the prophets of OLD. and is not the Spirit of Christ the Holy One in the Prophets? read 1 Peter 1:11 again.

now, your
New Living Translation
They wondered what time or situation the Spirit of Christ within them was talking about when he told them in advance about Christ’s suffering and his great glory afterward.

101G.
 
is the Lord in verse 2 the same "LORD" in verse 1?

No. The capital LORD can be a lowercase-lord but not the other way around. The same as all squares are rectangles but not all rectangles are squares.

or is the Lord" in Psalms 110:1 and Psalms 110:5 the Same person who is the "LORD" in Psalms 110:1 yes or no.

No. Better translations clear up hoped for confusion. From REV:
1After these things the word of Yahweh came to Abram in a vision, saying, “Do not be afraid, Abram, I am your shield; your reward is exceedingly great." 2But Abram said, “Lord Yahweh, what will you give me, since I continue to bea childless, and he who will inherit my estate is Eliezer of Damascus?”
Yahweh’s declaration to my lord, “Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet.”
5O almighty Lord, at your right hand is he who will shatter kings in the day of his wrath.


When you actually use the name of God, YHWH, as Scripture has originally, it becomes obvious with no ambiguity. Jesus cannot be God because he cannot sit at his own right hand and 1,000's of other proofs.
 
No. The capital LORD can be a lowercase-lord but not the other way around. The same as all squares are rectangles but not all rectangles are squares.
Another ERROR on your Part. Listen and Learn, Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."
Lord here is, H113 אָדוֹן 'adown (aw-done') n-m.
אָדֹן 'adon (aw-done') [shortened]
1. sovereign (i.e. controller, human or divine).
2. lord.
{also used as a prefix for names}
[from an unused root (meaning to rule)]
KJV: lord, master, owner.
Compare: H136

now verse 5 of 110. Psalms 110:5 "The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath." THE SAME "Lord" IN VERSE 1.... AT THE "LORD" RIGHT, LISTEN,

Lord: H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).

[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113

the same one person. the Lord Jesus is no Shaliah of God, but GOD.

101G.
 
well now a title, is "word" a title?
No. It could be, in theory, but not according to Scripture. In Scripture another title for Jesus is <the word of God.> This title cannot be fragmented. So, "word" is just a common noun and not a Proper Title. Again from REV:
1In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and what God was the word was.a
2This word was in the beginning with God.
3Everything came to be through it, and apart from it nothing came to be.b
4What came to be in it was life. And this life was the light of humankind.
5And the light shines in the darkness, but the darkness did not overcome it.

Notice how "word" is referred to as "it" not "him/he?" This is because words are WHAT's not WHO's. In Greek Houtos is the 1st word in verse 2. It mean this or that - not "he/him.

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This is a rare exploration by me into foreign Languages. houtos is the Greek word in both verses (John 6:60 & 1:2). It means "this" in English. οὗτος - Wiktionary
Determiner
οὗτος • (hoûtos), f αὕτη (haútē), n τοῦτο (toûto) (medial demonstrative determiner and pronoun)

this
(of place) here
in contrast with ὅδε (hóde): the preceding
in contrast with ἐκεῖνος (ekeînos): the latter
of someone or something famous or infamous
It makes perfect sense in John 6:60. "Many of his disciples said, This is very hard to understand. How can anyone accept it?” It also makes perfect sense in John 1:2. "This was with God in the beginning."

Note how the Greek-to-English translation of houtos does not include any other translation other than "this?" The word is not a translation for she or he in English. And that begs the question of why translators would translate the word correctly in 6:60 but incorrectly in 1:2?

Of course, not every translation got it wrong. However, those translations ADD "one" when biblehub.com does not indicate the presence of the word one. 'He one' does not make sense, which might explain why one translation adds yet another word that is not there per biblehub. Why translate it he himself?

American Standard Version
The same was in the beginning with God.

Aramaic Bible in Plain English
This One himself was at the origin with God.

Contemporary English Version
From the very beginning the Word was with God.

Douay-Rheims Bible
The same was in the beginning with God.

Good News Translation
From the very beginning the Word was with God.

Literal Standard Version
this One was in the beginning with God;
 
to all,
Understand the "LORD" is the "Lord" in Flesh in a G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') STATE while in human flesh. this is the "ECHAD" of God in plain sight.

101G.
 
where the unitarians went wrong at is in the coming savior. whom thay believe to be a mere man, like all saviours before to deliver then .... PHYSCIALLY from oppression from a foreign nation, as here with the Lord Jesus..... the Romans.

but the root cause of their physical oppression was a spiritual condition called SIN. and God put an end to sin. which was a spiritual deliverance. and this is the failing of the unitarians and those who looked for a physical deliverance.

101G.
 
Circular. Capital-LORD never refers to Jesus. I proved it in the NLT translation that Acts 2:21 does not refer to Jesus.

Irrelevant.

All the Greek letters are capitalized in the NT.

You also totally dodged the evidence from Acts 2:38 and Acts 4:12.

You are an expert about ignoring the evidence. You did the same thing with Romans 10:11 (cf. Romans 10:12-13) as well.
 
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