civic
Well-known member
Greater meaning what exactly ? Can you expound. Thanks !John 14:28. Jesus said His Father is greater than Him.
Greater meaning what exactly ? Can you expound. Thanks !John 14:28. Jesus said His Father is greater than Him.
You don't even know what the name of Jesus' God is.In addition to the evidence presented in the following link, there is even more proof that the "Lord" in Acts 2:21 refers to Jesus.
You don't even know
This is how you reply to the next verse, which explicitly calls Jesus a man?!how to refute the evidence I presented in post 200 because there is no refutation for it.
This is how you reply to the next verse, which explicitly calls Jesus a man?!
These particular verses in Acts is an area where Trinitarians yet again attempt to manipulate and impose their false claim that the Son of God is also God the Son and the LORD in the OT as well as the same lord Yahshua in the NT.In addition to the evidence presented in the following link, there is even more proof that the "Lord" in Acts 2:21 refers to Jesus.
https://berean-apologetics.community.forum/threads/the-lord-in-acts.206/#post-3607
Acts 2:21
And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the Name of the Lord shall be saved.
The expression "the Name of the Lord" is used a total of 6 additional times by Luke within The Book of Acts.
Acts 8:16
The Name of the Lord
Acts 9:28
The Name of the Lord
Acts 19:5
The Name of the Lord
Acts 19:13
The Name of the Lord
Acts 19:17
The Name of the Lord
Acts 21:13
The Name of the Lord
In all but one of the passages above the expression reads "The Name of the Lord Jesus" (8:16; 19:5, 13, 17; 21:13).
The only passage where it reads "The Name of the Lord" as it does in Acts 2:21 is Acts 9:28.
Acts 9:27-28
(27) But Barnabas took him, and brought him to the apostles, and declared unto them how he had seen the Lord on the road, and that He had spoken to him, and how he had preached boldly at Damascus in the Name of Jesus.
(28) And he was with them coming in and going out at Jerusalem. And he spoke boldly in the Name of the Lord.
Paul preached boldly in "the Name of Jesus" at Damascus (v. 27).
Paul continued speaking boldly in the Name of the same Lord in reference to Jesus at Jerusalem (v. 28).
Thus, every use of "The Name of the Lord" by Luke in The Book of Acts is in reference to the Lord Jesus.
Here's a list of some of the verses that these misguided Trinitarians use and where in ‘the name of the lord’ or Christ is found; in Acts 8:16, 9:28, Acts 19:5, 13, 17, 21:13.
They force these verses as an equivalent meaning of Joel or Acts 2:21.
And, if they truly believe they are the same, then I inquire are these proponents of this crude and ridiculous hypothesis truly saved?
Eisegesis. Jesus is not God. There is ony one God, the Father - at least, according to Scripture, the word of YHWH. But what does he know, right?The same in Joel 2:32 is the same Lord in these passages.
Dodgy indeed. It is always you I'm afraid and not I, to tell the truth.
Stop this ridiculous charade and read Acts 2:36.
These particular verses in Acts is an area where Trinitarians yet again attempt to manipulate and impose their false claim that the Son of God is also God the Son and the LORD in the OT as well as the same lord Yahshua in the NT.
It shows how powerful IDOLATRY is. The rationalization has no end. "In the name of APAK." ""In the name of Fred" Obviously, APAK and friend are a one Being, 2 person entity. Huh?Stop this ridiculous charade and read Acts 2:36. This should stop you in your tracks. If you understand it Fred, then you have to know that that 'calling on the LORD' in Joel and in verse 21 means that someone had to make Christ a Lord for us. And it was not himself....
LOL I didged nothing.Total dodge of Acts 2:21.
Pathetic.
LOL I didged nothing.
In the name of Fred, I am. This means we are both God, to your way of thinking, right?
No, they did not use this OT oassage to refer to Jesus. You must be relying on a bad transRomans 10:13 New Living Translation
13 For “Everyone who calls on the name of the LORD will be saved.”
This is referring to Jesus' God, YHWH. We know this because Jesus is NEVER referred to as YHWH, the capital-LORD.
was not Paul quoting Joel 2:32? "And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call."Whenever "the Name of the Lord" is used by Paul (speaking and in his writings) it is always in reference to the Lord Jesus.
Romans 10:13
For whosoever shall call upon the Name of the Lord shall be saved.
Dear friendIt find it difficult to accept that Unitarians are part of the family of God. S
My friends @civic and @Fred:Whenever "the Name of the Lord" is used by Paul (speaking and in his writings) it is always in reference to the Lord Jesus.
Both Paul and Peter several times refer to Christ as our God and Savior.My friends @civic and @Fred:
Whenever the name of "God" is used by Paul (speaking and in his writings) it is never in reference to the Lord Jesus.
Well, I should say >95% of the times.
I can do the math for those interested.
In regard to the Gospel, whenever the name "God" is used by Jesus, is never in reference to Himself.
This time it is 100% of the times.
I can do the math for those interested.
Several? Three.Both Paul and Peter several times refer to Christ as our God and Savior.