Praying to Jesus

[DavidTree]

This is true, Passover is a Covenant. But it wasn't part of the Temporary Priesthood Covenant God made with Levi on behalf of Israel, through which Israel received God's Laws, and though which Israel received atonement of sins. A Priesthood covenant which became old and was ready to vanish "After those days", which I understand to mean, "After the Prophesied Priest "After the Order of Melchizedek" should come.

I agree 100% with you regarding the importance of a man "Yielding himself" a servant to obey God.

SEE Post 399

Passover is the MOST integral part of the old covenant and is COMMANDED in the Levitical preisthood.

 

[Runningman]

The God portrayed in the Holy Scriptures is a Spirit, according to Scriptures. The Christ, before becoming a man, was a Spirit as well, that existed in the Minds of the Prophets who prophesied of Him becoming a man and dwelling among humans in human form.

Yes God is a Spirit and humans have a spirit too. Where did you get the idea that Jesus pre-existed as a spirit and in which sense? Do you mean this in the Ecclesiastes 12:7 sense?

Gen. 3: 22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become "as one of us", to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever: 23 Therefore the LORD God sent him forth from the garden of Eden, to till the ground from whence he was taken.

One of who though? God and the angels?

I just posted Paul's words, who in my opinion knows more than you about God and the Law and Prophets, which tell you the Spiritual Rock that fed and watered (instructed and guided) Israel, was the Spirit of Christ, "Before" HE became a man in the person of Jesus.

I agree with Paul completely. Paul is referring to several spirit things in 1 Corinthians 10:1-2. The spiritual food and drink weren't an actual person. Please show the verse from the OT where Jesus was there with them.

3They all ate the same spiritual food 4and drank the same spiritual drink; for they drank from the spiritual rock that accompanied them, and that rock was Christ. 5Nevertheless, God was not pleased with most of them, for they were struck down in the wilderness.

I understand how his teaching brings question to the Philosophy you have adopted and are now promoting to others, and therefore, as is the tradition of religious men, you have the fleshy urge to ignore or discount Paul as mistaken. Perhaps it is wise to consider allowing Scriptures to correct us, instead of us working to correct them.

Paul is correct. You got the wrong idea about me.

Again, you are injecting your own personal bias into the Scripture to the point of actually making up stuff that doesn't exist.

John 1: 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was "with God", and the Word "was God". 2 The same was in the beginning "with God". 3 All things were made by him; (The Word of God) and without "him" was not anything made that was made. 4 "In him" (The Word of God) was life; and the life was the light of men.

14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld "his" glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

So you see? The Word of God is a HE, according to John, not a thing as you are promoting to others.

I dont have a horse in the race as far as the Bible goes. John called the word a thing in 1 John 1:1-2. I hope we don't get stuck on this for a long time. I'll quote it, reject it if you wish, but a that, which, this, and it aren't a person.

1 John 1
1That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our own eyes, which we have gazed upon and touched with our own hands—this is the Word of life. 2And this is the life that was revealed; we have seen it and testified to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life that was with the Father and was revealed to us.

Gen. 15: 1 After these things "the word of the LORD" came unto Abram in a vision, saying, Fear not, Abram: "I" (The Word of the Lord) am thy shield, and thy exceeding great reward.

Ex. 9: 20 He that feared the word of the LORD among the servants of Pharaoh made his servants and his cattle flee into the houses: 21 And he that "regarded not" the word of the LORD left his servants and his cattle in the field.

Num. 15: 31 Because he hath despised the word of the LORD, and hath broken "his" (The Word of the Lord's) commandment, that soul shall utterly be cut off; his iniquity shall be upon him.

Those don't suggest the word of the LORD is a distinct person. Anytime the LORD speaks it's not the LORD speaking, but rather someone else named the Word? That doesn't make any sense. Why can't God just be a God who speaks?

So you see? In your attempt to justify your adopted religion, you have again promoted falsehoods about God and HIS Word, teaching that the "Word of God" was not an actual living being, but a thing.

Sorry, I have no idea what you're talking about. I don't have an adopted religion nor do I need an adopted religion. I am just a Christian.

The question is, can you be corrected, or are you just like many of the other preachers on this forum not capable of "yielding themselves" to the "Word of God" who became flesh.

Yes I can be corrected with Scripture.

It's about a religious philosophy you have adopted and are now promoting to others. The Scriptures teach that the Word of God "became Flesh" in the person of Jesus. You are preaching that the Word of God "created" the person Jesus. I know the Scriptures, but who are you?

Okay, so you want to describe an incarnation. For starters the word incarnation isn't used anywhere in the Bible. When John 1:14 says the Word "became" flesh it doesn't pre-suppose the Word incarnated. I already told you what this means and I take it you have rejected that. It's okay, I understand that people don't like being told anything and when you're ready you'll do a word study and see I was right.

Can you show me one place in my post where I said, suggested or even implied that Jesus was a thousands of years old mortal human? Come on sir, God is a Spirit, and the Christ, the Holy One of Israel, the "Rock" of David's Salvation, was also a Spirit. This Rock, this "Word of God" that was with God, "Became" a mortal human and dwelled among men. And what does it say about this Spirit who became a man?

Jesus wasn't a thousands of years old man at the time of John's writing. That's my point with 1 John 1:1-2 showing the Word as a thing. John 1 regarding the Word is personficiation.

Phil. 2: 6 Who, being in "the form of God", (A Spirit guiding Israel in the Wilderness) thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:

What about this?

No longer a Spirit, but a mortal human being, as He said, "He Laid down His Life".

8 And being found in fashion as a man, (When was this sir? when HE was 6 months old crapping His diaper, of when HE grew up and was old enough to understand who HE was?) he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. 9 Wherefore (Because of this) God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name "which is above every name":

Verse that says Jesus pre-existed as a spirit?

But as the Scriptures clearly show, John didn't call the Word of God "A Thing". John called the Word of God, "HE". The same in Genesis, Exodus, Numbers, and throughout the entire Bible.

1 John 1:1-2 calls the Word a thing.

1 Sam. 15: 22 And Samuel said, Hath the LORD as great delight in burnt offerings and sacrifices, as in obeying the voice of the LORD? Behold, to obey is better than sacrifice, and to hearken than the fat of rams. 23 For rebellion is as the sin of witchcraft, and stubbornness is as iniquity and idolatry. Because thou hast rejected the "word of the LORD", "he" ( The Word of the Lord) hath also rejected thee from being king.

You, not John, not the Law and Prophets, not anyone in the entire Bible, are calling the "Word of the Lord" a "thing".

Read 1 John 1:1-2 and the entire old testament. The word of God is an it.

Shouldn't a man believe what is written?



What makes a man? Flesh? Bones? Or thoughts? Without thoughts, what is a man? A pile of blood cells and water. As the Jesus "of the Bible" teaches. Thoughts can exist in a Spirit, but without thoughts, the flesh is nothing.

62 What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

"For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God."



There is nothing in Scriptures which even remotely promotes what you are promoting here.

I am not promoting it, I am just pointing out how 1 John 1:1-2 refers to the Word as a thing and not a human.

The Spirit which "became a man" in the person of Jesus, existed even before Abraham. Jesus tries to tell you this, but some men cannot receive Him. If I were you, I would stop adopting the religious philosophies of whoever it is that is teaching you and place your trust in the God Inspired Holy Scriptures, " for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness".

Then a thing became a man.

It can be humiliating at first, but humiliation is the cure for pride.

The mortal man Jesus did pre-exist in the foreknowledge of God.

Yes.

But the Spirit of Christ which became the mortal man Jesus, existed with His Father before the world was. At least according to the Jesus "of the Bible".

I am gathering you think the "Spirit of Christ" is a person when in demonstration and definition it seems be a thing. There are many things in scripture that refer to a spirit of X thing that are not actually a person. There is a spirit of wisdom, spirit of truth, spirit of glory, the spirit of the antichrist, etc. Can you clearly demonstrate using scripture why you believe the "Spirit of Christ", which means the spirit of the anointing, is a person rather than a thing? Many people had the messiah anointing.

To deny that the Spirit of Christ wasn't active in the OT, as the "Word of God" is foolishness at best, and evil at worse.

The "spirit of christ" was active in the OT. Absolutely, but "Christ" isn't Jesus' name is it? The word christ actually just means an anointed. It's the spirit of the anointing in this context, not a person. Many had it in the Old Testament...the Levitical priesthood and the prophets, namely.

 

[Studyman]

RETURN to God's EXACT words = "In the day

Passover was instituted the day before God brought Israel out of Egypt. And you are ignoring volumes of Scriptures which speak to the Covenant God promised to change, including the prophets, and 4 entire chapters in the Book of Hebrews. And for what? Because you don't want to be bothered with Passover, and are trying to justify its abolition in modern religions?

 

[TOTHALORDBEALLGLORY]

This is true, Passover is a Covenant. But it wasn't part of the Temporary Priesthood Covenant God made with Levi on behalf of Israel, through which Israel received God's Laws, and though which Israel received atonement of sins. A Priesthood covenant which became old and was ready to vanish "After those days", which I understand to mean, "After the Prophesied Priest "After the Order of Melchizedek" should come.

I agree 100% with you regarding the importance of a man "Yielding himself" a servant to obey God.

A servant to OBEY GOD .
so tell me HOW does one OBEY GOD when they REJECT HIS TESTMONY OF JESUS THE CHIRST
WHOM GOD TESTIFIED OF and said TO HEAR HIM .
DOES a person who rejects JESUS as the CHRIST obey GOD WHO SENT HIM .
Short answer . NO
long answer HECK NO .
IF a man is a hearer but not a DOER of THE WORD , that man DESEEVES , or DECIEVES himself .
WHAT DOES GOD DESIRE .
AND WHAT DID GOD DESIRE .
OBEDIANCE unto GOD . TO OBEY AND HONOR THE SON . all who honor the SON honor the FATHER
all who honor not the SON honor not the FATHER .
IF a man rejects you they reject me who sent you and if they reject me they reject HIM that sent me .
OBEIDANCE IS KEY . WHOM we gonna obey , GOD WHO TESTIFIED OF THE SON
or the god who says there is no need to have believed on THE SON . do take note the latter that says no need to beleive
on JESUS the CHRIST , yeah that god was not capitlized . cause WELL it aint GOD its the dark one
doing alll to sell a lie to damn everyone he can .

 

[DavidTree]

Passover was instituted the day before God brought Israel out of Egypt. And you are ignoring volumes of Scriptures which speak to the Covenant God promised to change, including the prophets, and 4 entire chapters in the Book of Hebrews. And for what? Because you don't want to be bothered with Passover, and are trying to justify its abolition in modern religions?

Why are you deliberately ignoring the YEARLY CONTINUATION of Passover COMMANDED by GOD to Moses, in the Levitical priesthood, after they left Egypt,

 

[Runningman]

sure does . HE said he has the power to lay it down and to raise it up again .
SO yeah , it sure do .
Just cause after the fact he was raised from the dead many seen him or etc
DONT contradict the fact HE said I have power to lay it down and to raise it up again .
It almost seems like you are grasping at straws in a whirlwind
when you should be seeker shelter from said whirlwind .
IN other words stop trying to find things you THINK support your view
when in truth its real simple . IF JESUS SAID IT , well JUST BELIEVE IT . sure one might not understand it
BUT ONE SHOULD SURELY BELIEVE IT . start with that mindset .

John 2:22 uses the passive voice, therefore the action of being raised from the dead was performed by someone else aside from the subject (Jesus) therefore Jesus didn't raise himself. It's basic english grammar. Someone else performed the action of resurrection on Jesus. Scripture testifies it was God the Father. Jesus is a human in Scripture. Do you agree with that?

 

[Studyman]

SEE Post 399

Passover is the MOST integral part of the old covenant and is COMMANDED in the Levitical preisthood.

In the first Covenant, people received God's Laws though the Levitical Priesthood. The Sabbath of God was also commanded through the Levitical Priesthood, but was created and sanctified even before Abraham.

 

[DavidTree]

Passover was instituted the day before God brought Israel out of Egypt. And you are ignoring volumes of Scriptures which speak to the Covenant God promised to change, including the prophets, and 4 entire chapters in the Book of Hebrews. And for what? Because you don't want to be bothered with Passover, and are trying to justify its abolition in modern religions?

Post 405 updated

 

[DavidTree]

In the first Covenant, people received God's Laws though the Levitical Priesthood. The Sabbath of God was also commanded through the Levitical Priesthood, but was created and sanctified even before Abraham.

Post 405 has the answer to you question(s) from God's word in Exodus

 

[TOTHALORDBEALLGLORY]

John 2:22 uses the passive voice, therefore the action of being raised from the dead was performed by someone else aside from the subject (Jesus) therefore Jesus didn't raise himself. It's basic english grammar. Someone else performed the action of resurrection on Jesus. Scripture testifies it was God the Father. Jesus is a human in Scripture. Do you agree with that?

according to you he uses the passive voice , what is next i wonder .
You use any and every excuse to twist what was simply written .
passive voice .
guess next it will be judging voice
or accusation voice , or whatever voice , so long as what is implied
is what you want to beleive .
JUST BELIEVE , as do a child , what is written .

 

[Studyman]

Why are you deliberately ignoring the YEARLY CONTINUATION of Passover COMMANDED by GOD to Moses, in the Levitical priesthood, after they left Egypt,

I'm not. I'm simply pointing out that the Passover was instituted before God's Priesthood Covenant with Levi. This is simply true. Did God abolish Passover when HE instituted the Levitical Priesthood? Of course not. Was "thou shall not commit Adultery" also a part of the Levitical Priesthood? Or was it God's Law the people received "through the Levitical Priesthood"?

Will you answer?

 

[DavidTree]

according to you he uses the passive voice , what is next i wonder .
You use any and every excuse to twist what was simply written .
passive voice .
guess next it will be judging voice
or accusation voice , or whatever voice , so long as what is implied
is what you want to beleive .
JUST BELIEVE , as do a child , what is written .

Serpent speak 101: Speak God's words BUT impose man's own 'view' upon them.

EXAMPLE: Mathew 4:5-6

Then the devil took Him up into the holy city, set Him on the pinnacle of the temple, and said to Him, “If You are the Son of God, throw Yourself down.
For it is written:

‘He shall give His angels charge over you,’
and,

‘In their hands they shall bear you up,
Lest you dash your foot against a stone.’ ”
God.’ ”

 

[DavidTree]

Did God abolish Passover when HE instituted the Levitical Priesthood? Of course not.

Then why were you saying that "on the day of the first passover in Egypt was NOT continued in the Levitical preisthood"

them be your own words

that is called 'Doublespeak'

 

[Selah]

Hebrews 5:7 says Jesus needed to pray and cry out to the One who could save him from death. That's scripture. Jesus didn't resurrect himself and clearly needed his own salvation provisioned by God like all other people do.

Psalm 16:10 is cited in Acts 13:35. Jesus' soul went to hades and required saving. I didn't write it. Just bearing witness of what the Scripture teaches.

Thank you for sharing the things you believe. Please let me know if you have any questions.

Hi again…

So also Christ did not glorify Himself to become High Priest, but it was He who said to Him: "You are My Son, Today I have begotten You." As He also says in another place: "You are a priest forever According to the order of Melchizedek"; who, in the days of His flesh, when He had offered up prayers and supplications, with vehement cries and tears to Him who was able to save Him from death, and was heard because of His godly fear, though He was a Son, yet He learned obedience by the things which He suffered. And having been perfected, He became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him, called by God as High Priest "according to the order of Melchizedek,"

- Hebrews 5:5-10 (NKJV)

Runningman, God the Father heard the reverence (fear here refers to reverence) of His only begotten Son, and He observed Jesus Christ's obedience in everything He did. Jesus was never afraid of dying. He was the Son of God and He came to suffer, bear the cross, and give His life for mankind. Jesus Christ never asked His Father to spare Him from fulfilling the purpose for which He came to earth. In other words, Jesus wasn't praying or weeping for Himself, but for the world. He even brought salvation to the thief on the cross while He Himself in agony was hanging there to die!

Amazing GRACE,

Selah

 

[Marvelloustime]

according to you he uses the passive voice , what is next i wonder .
You use any and every excuse to twist what was simply written .
passive voice .
guess next it will be judging voice
or accusation voice , or whatever voice , so long as what is implied
is what you want to beleive .
JUST BELIEVE , as do a child , what is written .

 

[Runningman]

according to you he uses the passive voice , what is next i wonder .
You use any and every excuse to twist what was simply written .
passive voice .
guess next it will be judging voice
or accusation voice , or whatever voice , so long as what is implied
is what you want to beleive .
JUST BELIEVE , as do a child , what is written .

If I was a child again I wouldn't believe Jesus is God. The Bible clearly calls Jesus the Son of God therefore God is Jesus' Father. Therefore the Father is God. Therefore Jesus is not his own Father and isn't God. That's how I understood it when I was a child. So I would invite you to believe like a child.

 

[Marvelloustime]

according to you he uses the passive voice , what is next i wonder .
You use any and every excuse to twist what was simply written .
passive voice .
guess next it will be judging voice
or accusation voice , or whatever voice , so long as what is implied
is what you want to beleive .
JUST BELIEVE , as do a child , what is written .

 

[Marvelloustime]

according to you he uses the passive voice , what is next i wonder .
You use any and every excuse to twist what was simply written .
passive voice .
guess next it will be judging voice
or accusation voice , or whatever voice , so long as what is implied
is what you want to beleive .
JUST BELIEVE , as do a child , what is written .

 

[synergy]

I have already addressed this two times now. You have not added anything different in reply to what I said. I am beginning to notice the pattern that after I say something, it would seem you are just not reading it, then pasting something similar i have already replied to.

Here is my last reply to what you said in case you missed it.

"For your theology to work, the Father would have to be a human and god and He isn't. Bad comparison on your part. I think where you are getting lost is you think God is a state of being or a status, rather than a single person as Scripture says. John 17:3 says that the Father in the thing you call "the trinity" is the only true God. You seem to understand that words have meaning. Tell us all what the word "only" means. This should be good watching you do mental gymnastics to dodge this one. popcorn time!"

I have already addressed this already. See evidence below. As such you are projecting the following: "You have not added anything different in reply to what I said. I am beginning to notice the pattern that after I say something, it would seem you are just not reading it, then pasting something similar i have already replied to"

So now, why in the world would the "Father ... have to be a human and god"? Where did you get the notion that I'm getting lost because I think God is a state of being or a status? The Trinity is not a "thing". Your condescending attitude is duly noted. The qualifier "only' is applied to God, not to the Father. In other words, it's not that only the Father is God. Therefore, John 17:3 is a perfectly Trinitarian verse.

So, this is what you're up against. I'll let you think and check twice about your next reply which has to directly address the following points:

1. I do acknowledge Acts 3:13 but Ex 3 describes a Divine Appearance. Do you understand that fact?
2. John 6:46 precludes the possibility that it's the Father appearing to anyone except Christ but
3. John 14:9 allows the Father to be seen when one sees Jesus, the Preincarnate Jesus in the case of Ex 3.

Conclusion: Jesus is the "I Am" OT God mentioned in Ex 3

 

[Selah]

Raise those hands Selah and david and others . WE gonna stay glued in our bibles .
many and sadly i do mean many decievers have come from within to lead this people astray .
WE were warned very clearly that in the latter times they would depart from the faith .
We were warned that many decievers cloaked in wool would abound to decieve .
We were warning of a great falling away , a time would they would no longer heed sound doctrine .
A time when inquity would abound .
WE HAVE ARRIVED unto them days and seducers are many and shall seduce , deceiving and being decieved .
Beware and take heed unto the doctrine . We are in the time of the great falling away and a lie
that will damn all , a strong delusion to believe this lie is moving forth to take all captive to a lie
ALL WHO REJECTED THE LOVE OF THE TRUTH whereby they may be saved , will believe a lie and will be damned .
Stay firm in that bible . the flood of great deceptoin has been unleashed from the dragons mouth .

Amen, brother. We’ve got to be watchmen in these latter days and never ever be deceived by the flood of lies that are coming out of them locusts’ mouths that are swarming now.

s.