TOTHALORDBEALLGLORY
Active member
on the surface level this actually is the truth . But beware that this is not used to try and twist something else .Oh my goodness, you won't answer either. OK, I will answer my own simple questions first, then I will reply to your post concerning IS. 1 which is a very revealing chapter defining the problems with this world's religions.
"after those days, says the Lord: I will put My law in their minds, and write it on their hearts".
So how did men receive God's Law "in the First Covenant", according to Scriptures?"
The answer: Heb. 7: 11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
So this is true, Yes? You believe these words, Yes? So before "After those days", before the New Prophesied Priest of God should come, men received God's Word from the Levite Priests, through the Levitical Priesthood "after the order of Aaron", who had exclusive possession of the Oracles of God. Do you believe this?
But, according to Scriptures, this priesthood covenant became problematic, as it is written.
Mal. 2: 7 For the priest's lips should keep knowledge, and they should seek the law at his mouth: for he is "the messenger of the LORD" of hosts.
8 But ye are departed out of the way; "ye have caused many to stumble at the law"; ye have corrupted "the covenant of Levi", saith the LORD of hosts. 9 Therefore have I also made you contemptible and base before all the people, according as ye have not kept my ways, but have been partial in the law.
So what did God promise?
Heb. 8: 7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.
8 For finding fault "with them", (Corrupt Priests who were teaching for doctrines the commandments of men, and not God) he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:
The Priesthood was changed, we all have the Oracles of God in our own homes now, in our own hearts. No longer do we "Receive God's Laws" through the Levitical Priesthood, or any earthly religion. We now have, as promised, access to His Oracles directly.
Isn't this truth?
And the next question.
"For I will forgive their iniquity, and their sin I will remember no more.”
And how was forgiveness of Sins provided for in the First covenant, according to Scriptures?
The answer: Lev. 4: 27 And if any one of the common people sin through ignorance, while he doeth somewhat against any of the commandments of the LORD concerning things which ought not to be done, and be guilty; 28 Or if his sin, which he hath sinned, come to his knowledge: then he shall bring his offering, a kid of the goats, a female without blemish, for his sin which he hath sinned.
29 And he shall lay his hand upon the head of the sin offering, and slay the sin offering "in the place" of the burnt offering.
30 And the (Levite) priest shall take of the blood thereof with his finger, and put it upon the horns of the altar of burnt offering, and shall pour out all the blood thereof at the bottom of the altar. 31 And he (Levite Priest) shall take away all the fat thereof, as the fat is taken away from off the sacrifice of peace offerings; and the (Levite) priest shall burn it upon the altar for a sweet savour unto the LORD; and the (Levite) priest shall make an atonement for him, "and it shall be forgiven him".
This is true according to Scriptures, Yes? You believe these words, Yes? So before "After those days", before the New Prophesied Priest of God should come, men received forgiveness of sins through the Levite Priests, through the Levitical Priesthood sacrifices and burnt offerings for sin, "after the order of Aaron", who had exclusive possession of the Temple and the Alter and the Oracles of God. But, according to Scriptures, this priesthood covenant was only temporary, as it is written.
Heb. 10: 1 For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices which they offered year by year continually make the comers thereunto perfect.
2 For then would they not have ceased to be offered? because that the worshippers once purged should have had no more conscience of sins.
3 But in those sacrifices there is a remembrance again made of sins every year.
4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.
5 Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, "but a body hast thou prepared me":
6 In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin thou hast had no pleasure.
7 Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God.
8 Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law;
9 Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, (Priesthood Covenant) that he may establish the second. (Priesthood Covenant)
So the 2 things that changed in God's definition of His Own New Covenant, are:
#1. The manner in which men receive God's Laws.
#2. The manner in which sins are forgiven.
But even though the Scriptures clearly show this, this isn't what is taught by this world's religions, Is it?
This is why many have to dance around the answer to this question, because the true answer brings questions to the teaching that Jesus came to abolish or "nail to His Cross", the very Laws God said HE would write on the hearts of His People.
This is why, in my view, the questions I asked concerning God's own definition of His Own New covenant are so important to seek the answer to. After all, we are warned about the "many" deceivers who come in Christ's Name.
I hope you will consider what is written on the topic.
however what i read here appears to be true .
