There is no mention of a spiritual rock that was following the Israelites around in the desert and even if there was it was spiritual in reference to the rock Moses struck and water gushed forth. That would render your understanding as spiritual, as the Scripture states, and not literal. It's all prophetic foreshadowing of Jesus being pierced with water gushing forth.
The God portrayed in the Holy Scriptures is a Spirit, according to Scriptures. The Christ, before becoming a man, was a Spirit as well, that existed in the Minds of the Prophets who prophesied of Him becoming a man and dwelling among humans in human form.
Gen. 3:
22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become "as one of us", to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever: 23 Therefore the LORD God sent him forth from the garden of Eden, to till the ground from whence he was taken.
I just posted Paul's words, who in my opinion knows more than you about God and the Law and Prophets, which tell you the Spiritual Rock that fed and watered (instructed and guided) Israel, was the Spirit of Christ, "Before" HE became a man in the person of Jesus.
I understand how his teaching brings question to the Philosophy you have adopted and are now promoting to others, and therefore, as is the tradition of religious men, you have the fleshy urge to ignore or discount Paul as mistaken. Perhaps it is wise to consider allowing Scriptures to correct us, instead of us working to correct them.
1 John 1:1-2 refers to the Word as an it, a thing. John 1's poem about the Word is personification of a non-person thing.
Again, you are injecting your own personal bias into the Scripture to the point of actually making up stuff that doesn't exist.
John 1:
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was "with God", and the Word "was God". 2 The same was in the beginning "with God". 3 All things were made by him; (The Word of God) and without "him" was not anything made that was made. 4 "In him" (The Word of God) was life; and the life was the light of men.
14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld "his" glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
So you see? The Word of God is a HE, according to John, not a thing as you are promoting to others.
This is precedented since in the OT there isn't an actual person named the Word, but there is plenty of personification of God's words. There is plenty of personification of many things in Scripture that, if taken literal, wouldn't really make any sense. Do you also say the church is literally the Bride of Christ? How is that when you aren't a female and men marrying other men is a sin in Scripture? See, we can go too far with an idea and then it doesn't make sense anymore.
Gen. 15:
1 After these things "the word of the LORD" came unto Abram in a vision, saying, Fear not, Abram: "I" (The Word of the Lord) am thy shield, and thy exceeding great reward.
Ex. 9:
20 He that feared the word of the LORD among the servants of Pharaoh made his servants and his cattle flee into the houses: 21 And he that "regarded not" the word of the LORD left his servants and his cattle in the field.
Num. 15:
31 Because he hath despised the word of the LORD, and hath broken "his" (The Word of the Lord's) commandment, that soul shall utterly be cut off; his iniquity shall be upon him.
So you see? In your attempt to justify your adopted religion, you have again promoted falsehoods about God and HIS Word, teaching that the "Word of God" was not an actual living being, but a thing.
The question is, can you be corrected, or are you just like many of the other preachers on this forum not capable of "yielding themselves" to the "Word of God" who became flesh.
You're close, but it wasn't an incarnation. It's that the Word caused flesh to be. In other words, the Word created Jesus. The word "became" flesh in John 1:14 means this throughout the New Testament in the Greek. It's all about cause and effect.
It's about a religious philosophy you have adopted and are now promoting to others. The Scriptures teach that the Word of God "became Flesh" in the person of Jesus. You are preaching that the Word of God "created" the person Jesus. I know the Scriptures, but who are you?
I will point to 1 John 1:1-2 again where the Word is said to be a thing that was revealed to the disciples who were not there at the literal "beginning" of creation to see, hear, or touch anything. Though if 1 John 1:1-2 is suggesting that what they saw, heard, and touched was a man named Jesus then Jesus was a physical man from the beginning of creation,
Can you show me one place in my post where I said, suggested or even implied that Jesus was a thousands of years old mortal human? Come on sir, God is a Spirit, and the Christ, the Holy One of Israel, the "Rock" of David's Salvation, was also a Spirit. This Rock, this "Word of God" that was with God, "Became" a mortal human and dwelled among men. And what does it say about this Spirit who became a man?
Phil. 2:
6 Who, being in "the form of God", (A Spirit guiding Israel in the Wilderness) thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
No longer a Spirit, but a mortal human being, as He said, "He Laid down His Life".
8 And being found in fashion as a man, (When was this sir? when HE was 6 months old crapping His diaper, of when HE grew up and was old enough to understand who HE was?) he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. 9 Wherefore (Because of this) God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name "which is above every name":
but there is still the problem of the Word being called a thing throughout 1 John 1:1-2 and the issue of Jesus not being the first man, but rather the second man, as Paul said in 1 Cor. 15:47. Therefore, he wasn't eternal anyway and is, in fact, created.
But as the Scriptures clearly show, John didn't call the Word of God "A Thing". John called the Word of God, "HE". The same in Genesis, Exodus, Numbers, and throughout the entire Bible.
1 Sam. 15:
22 And Samuel said, Hath the LORD as great delight in burnt offerings and sacrifices, as in obeying the voice of the LORD? Behold, to obey is better than sacrifice, and to hearken than the fat of rams. 23 For rebellion is as the sin of witchcraft, and stubbornness is as iniquity and idolatry. Because thou hast rejected the "word of the LORD", "he" ( The Word of the Lord) hath also rejected thee from being king.
You, not John, not the Law and Prophets, not anyone in the entire Bible, are calling the "Word of the Lord"
a "thing".
Shouldn't a man believe what is written?
Yes and amen.
Yes, but what did he say he was? The Son of Man? That means a human in Scripture, right?
What makes a man? Flesh? Bones? Or thoughts? Without thoughts, what is a man? A pile of blood cells and water. As the Jesus "of the Bible" teaches. Thoughts can exist in a Spirit, but without thoughts, the flesh is nothing.
62 What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?
63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
"For what man knoweth the things of a man,
save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God."
Jesus and Scripture suggest didn't Jesus didn't pre-exist, but if he did then it suggests it was as a human being and that is problematic in its own way.
There is nothing in Scriptures which even remotely promotes what you are promoting here. The Spirit which "became a man" in the person of Jesus, existed even before Abraham. Jesus tries to tell you this, but some men cannot receive Him. If I were you, I would stop adopting the religious philosophies of whoever it is that is teaching you and place your trust in the God Inspired Holy Scriptures, "
for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness".
It can be humiliating at first, but humiliation is the cure for pride.
I say he pre-existed in God's foreknowledge.
The mortal man Jesus did pre-exist
in the foreknowledge of God. But the Spirit of Christ which became the mortal man Jesus, existed with His Father before the world was. At least according to the Jesus "of the Bible".
Now, if there were any examples of Jesus being active in the OT that might be a game changer. I am not talking about someone making an argument. I am talking about Scripture in the OT that identifies Jesus directly and explicitly. None.
To deny that the Spirit of Christ wasn't active in the OT, as the "Word of God" is foolishness at best, and evil at worse.