Isaiah 53:5 The chastisement of our peace was upon Him

And your sins don't deserve wrath I guess.

You sure are special. :(
My sins do. Jesus was not a sinner.

Wrath from God is always on the wicked, the God haters, the reprobate, the rebellious etc...... NEVER once does Gods wrath ever fall upon the innocent, the righteous, the holy, the blameless, His servants etc...........

hope this helps !!!
 
YHWH did not pour His wrath on Himself. Christ is YHWH.

The divided god theory once again is nothing but an oxymoron, A FABLE, unbiblical.

hope this helps !!!
Hebrew concept of righteousness cannot be reduced to covenant
faithfulness or salvation. Righteousness language in the Hebrew
Scriptures also involves punitive divine justice, according to which
righteousness is “understood as measured by a norm, right order,
or that which is morally right,” with the qualification that “the
norm is not seen as some abstract ideal ... but rather as a norm
concretised in relation” between God and creatures (Dunn 2008,
pp. 63–64).
So, when we come to Romans, “That God’s righteousness towards the peoples he has created includes wrath and
judgment as well as faithfulness and salvation is clearly implicit
in the sequences Rom. 1.16–18 and 3.3–6” (Dunn 2008, pp. 64–65).

Those who deny that dikaiosynē is a forensic term pay insufficient

attention to Rom 4.4–5, “where the forensic background is clear in
the allusion to the legal impropriety of a judge ‘justifying the
ungodly’ ... and where again the thought is entirely of attributing

a righteous status to one who is unrighteous” (Dunn 2008, p. 64).

1.3.2.1.3 Divine Forbearance
Having said that God put Christ forward as a sacrifice of atonement
(hilastērion),
Paul claims that God did this to show His justice,
since He had passed over the sins of previous generations, the
point being, presumably, that God’s failure to punish previous
sins allowed His justice to be called into question (cf. 2.4). But
now, through Christ’s sacrificial death, God’s justice has been
vindicated. How so? The almost inescapable implication is that
these sins have now received their due; no longer can they be
considered overlooked or unpunished. Punitive justice, God’s justice, has been discharged in Christ. Some commentators have
attempted to resist this implication by taking Paul to be saying
that God demonstrates His covenant faithfulness by overlooking

former sins.


Not only does such a reading depend on the untenable
new perspective reductionism, but dia + the accusative does not
mean “by” but “because of,” and it seems a non sequitur to say that
because He had overlooked previous sins, God now puts forth
Christ as a sacrificial offering as a demonstration of His faithfulness.
The implication, rather, is that Christ has borne the punishment due for those sins and thereby exonerated God’s justice. This
understanding is confirmed by Gal 3.13, where Paul says that
“Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become
a curse for us.”


Whereas we were accursed by God through disobedience to the law, Christ has rescued us by taking that cursedness upon him

In what way did Christ became a curse for us? Our doing or YHVH?
 
My sins do. Jesus was not a sinner.

Wrath from God is always on the wicked, the God haters, the reprobate, the rebellious etc...... NEVER once does Gods wrath ever fall upon the innocent, the righteous, the holy, the blameless, His servants etc...........

hope this helps !!!
There's a huge difference between wrath and punitive chastisement-even for believers IN Messiah.
Hope THAT helps.
 
So Jesus doesn't bear your sins?

He just "covers" your sins without ever paying the price you deserve?

Free atonement?!
He bore my sins, He forgives my sins, He covers my sins, He forgets my sins and remembers them no more, He ransoms my sins. I have spelled this out literally 100's of times on this forum. I already listed 10 things Jesus said about His atonement this morning which includes my comments here I just made. And of course you already know this but its your same old question game I have answered you so many times I have lost count at this point. But its more than anyone else here on the forum.

hope this helps !!!
 
There's a huge difference between wrath and punitive chastisement-even for believers IN Messiah.
Hope THAT helps.
There is no wrath from the Father on the Son. The anger, vengeance, retribution, hostility all came from the Jewish leaders as Jesus said, not from the Father. So if there was any wrath inflicted on Jesus it came from the Jewish leaders and not the Father.

hope this helps !!!
 
That's blasphemy!!!!!!

Even though Paul literally said it, it's blasphemy apparently.
Gal 3:13 Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:
Gal 3:14 That the blessing of Abraham might come on the Gentiles through Jesus Christ; that we might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith.

Having become a curse for us (genomenos huper hēmōn katara).

Here the graphic picture is completed. We were under (hupo) a curse, Christ became a curse over (huper) us and so between us and the overhanging curse which fell on him instead of on us.

Thus he bought us out (ek) and we are free from the curse which he took on himself. This use of huper for substitution is common in the papyri and in ancient Greek as in the N.T. (Joh_11:50; 2Co_5:14.).

Why so shocked? Never read this portion of Scripture? it stands written, and I believe it.
 
is not Jesus and the Father is of ONE "Spirit?.
@TedT, you said! "No, spirit denotes personhood. They are three persons, spirits, unified as ONE GOD".

Glad you said that. Philippians 2:6 "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:"
the Lord Jesus is in, in, in, the "FORM" of God? and FORM here means NATURE, which is "Spirit". and "being" is PRESENT TENSE. and since you said, "spirit denotes personhood", then it's the same one PERSON who is God. only holding the Titles of Father, and Son, in TIME, PLACE, OERDER, and RANK.

now if you think or believe that 101G is in ERROR, please let us discuss it. ...... by the scriptures.

101G
 
He bore my sins, He forgives my sins, He covers my sins, He forgets my sins and remembers them no more, He ransoms my sins. I have spelled this out literally 100's of times on this forum. I already listed 10 things Jesus said about His atonement this morning which includes my comments here I just made. And of course you already know this but its your same old question game I have answered you so many times I have lost count at this point. But its more than anyone else here on the forum.

So because I deal fairly and ask questions to give you a lot of time to explain and defend your position, somehow I'm the "bad guy" who is just pestering you.

Frankly, that's a twisted and unfair accusation.

You have Jesus "bearing" and "covering" without ever "paying."

That doesn't resolve God's justice concerning sin.
 
I will let Barnes the Calvinist educate you on what become a curs means in Galatians 3:13

From the curse of the law - The curse which the Law threatens, and which the execution of the Law would inflict; the punishment due to sin. This must mean, that he has rescued us from the consequences of transgression in the world of woe; he has saved us from the punishment which our sins have deserved. The word, "us" here, must refer to all who are redeemed; that is, to the Gentiles as well as the Jews. The curse of the Law is a curse which is due to sin, and cannot be regarded as applied particularly to any one class of people. All who violate the Law of God, however that law may be made known, are exposed to its penalty. The word "law" here, relates to the Law of God in general, to all the laws of God made known to man. The Law of God denounced death as the wages of sin. It threatened punishment in the future world forever. That would certainly have been inflicted, but for the coming and death of Christ. The world is lying by nature under this curse, and it is sweeping the race on to ruin.

Being made a curse for us - This is an exceedingly important expression. Tyndale renders it, "And was made a curse for us." The Greek word is κατάρα katara, the same word which is used in Galatians 3:10; see the note at that verse. There is scarcely any passage in the New Testament on which it is more important to have correct views than this; and scarcely anyone on which more erroneous opinions have been entertained. In regard to it, we may observe that it does not mean:

(1) That by being made a curse, the Lord Jesus' character or work were in any sense displeasing to God. He approved always of what the Lord Jesus did, and he regarded his whole character with love and approbation. The passage should never be so interpreted as to leave the impression that he was in any conceivable sense the object of the divine displeasure.

(2) Jesus was not ill-deserving. He was not blame-worthy. He had done no wrong. He was holy, harmless, undefiled. No crime charged upon him was proved; and there is no clearer doctrine in the Bible than that, in all his character and work, the Lord Jesus was perfectly holy and pure.

(3) Jesus was not guilty in any proper sense of the word. The word guilty means, properly, to be bound to punishment for crime. It does not mean properly, to be exposed to suffering, but it always, when properly used, implies the notion of personal crime. I know that theologians have used the word in a somewhat different sense, but it is contrary to the common and just apprehensions of people. When we say that a man is guilty, we instinctively think of his having committed a crime, or having done something wrong. When a jury finds a man guilty, it implies that the man has committed a crime, and ought to be punished. But in this sense, and in no conceivable sense where the word is properly used was the Lord Jesus "guilty."

(4) it cannot be mean that the Lord Jesus properly bore the penalty of the Law. His sufferings were in the place of the penalty, not the penalty itself. They were a substitution for the penalty, and were, therefore, strictly and properly vicarious, and were not the identical sufferings which the sinner would himself have endured. There are some things in the penalty of the Law, which the Lord Jesus did not endure, and which a substitute or a vicarious victim could not endure. Remorse of conscience is a part of the inflicted penalty of the Law, and will be a vital part of the sufferings of the sinner in hell - but the Lord Jesus did not endure that. Eternity of sufferings is an essential part of the penalty of the Law - but the Lord Jesus did not suffer forever. Thus, there are numerous sorrows connected with the consciousness of personal guilt, which the Lord Jesus did not and cannot endure.

(5) Jesus was not sinful, or a sinner, in any sense. He did not so take human guilt upon him, that the words sinful and sinner could with any propriety be applied to him. They are not applied to him any way in the Bible; but there the language is undeviating. It is that in all senses he was holy and undefiled. And yet language is often used on this subject which is horrible and only a little short of blasphemy, as if he was guilty, and as if he was even the greatest sinner in the universe. I have heard language used which sent a chill of horror to my heart; and language may be found in the writings of those who hold the doctrine of imputation in the strictest sense, which is only a little short of blasphemy. I have hesitated whether I should copy expressions here on this subject from one of the greatest and best of men (I mean Luther) to show the nature of the views which people sometimes entertain on the subject of the imputation of sin to Christ. But as Luther deliberately published them to the world in his favorite book, which he used to call his "Catharine de Bora," after the name of his wife; and since similar views are sometimes entertained now; and as it is important that such views should be held up to universal abhorrence, no matter how respectable the source from which they emanate, I will copy a few of his expressions on this subject. "And this, no doubt, all the prophets did foresee in spirit, than Christ should become the greatest transgressor, murderer, adulterer, thief, rebel, and blasphemer, that ever was OR could be in the world. For he being made a sacrifice for the sins of the whole world is not now an innocent person and without sins; is not now the Son of God, born of the Virgin Mary; but a sinner which hath and carrieth the sin of Paul, who was a blasphemer, an oppressor, and a persecutor; of Peter, which denied Christ; of David, which was an adulterer, a murderer, and caused the Gentiles to blaspheme the name of the Lord; and, briefly, which hath and beareth all the sins of all people in his body: not that he himself committed them, but for that he received them, being committed or done of us, and laid them upon his own body, that he might make satisfaction for them with his own blood.

Therefore, this general sentence of Moses comprehendeth him also (albeit in his own person he was innocent), because it found him among sinners and transgressors; like as the magistrate taketh him for a thief, and punisheth him whom he findeth among other thieves and transgressors, though he never committed anything worthy of death. When the Law, therefore, found him among thieves it condemned and killed him as a thief." "If thou wilt deny him to be a sinner and accursed, deny, also, that he was crucified and dead." "But if it is not absurd to confess and believe that Christ was crucified between two thieves, then it is not absurd to say that he was accursed, and of all sinnerS, the greatesT." "God, our most merciful Father, sent His only Son into the world, and laid upon him all the sins of all people, saying, be thou Peter, that denier; Paul, that persecutor, blasphemer, and cruel oppressor; David, that adulterer; that sinner which did eat the fruit in Paradise; that thief who hung upon the cross; and, briefly, be thou the person who has committed the sins of all people; see, therefore, that thou pay and satisfy for them" - Luther on the Galatians, Galatians 3:13. (pp. 213-215. London edition, 1838).

Luther was a great and holy man. He held, as firmly as anyone can, to the personal holiness of the Redeemer. But this language shows how imperfect and erroneous views may warp the language of holy people; and how those sentiments led him to use language which is little less than blasphemy. Indeed, we cannot doubt that in Luther had heard this very language used by one of the numerous enemies of the gospel in his time, as applicable to the Saviour, he would have poured out the full torrent of his burning wrath, and all the stern denunciations of his most impassioned eloquence, on the head of the scoffer and the blasphemer. It is singular, it is one of the remarkable facts in the history of mind, that a man with the New Testament before him, and accustomed to contemplate daily its language, could ever have allowed himself to use expressions like these of the holy and unspotted Saviour. But what is the meaning of the language of Paul, it will be asked, when he says that he was "made a curse for us?"

In reply, I answer, that the meaning must be ascertained from the passage which Paul quotes in support of his assertion, that Christ was "made a curse for us." That passage is, "Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree." This passage is found in Deuteronomy 21:23. It occurs in a law respecting one who was hanged for a "sin worthy of death," Deuteronomy 21:22. The Law was, that he should be buried the same day, and that the body should not remain suspended over the night, and it is added, as a reason for this, that "he that is hanged is accursed of God;" or, as it is in the margin, "the curse of God." The meaning is, that when one was executed for crime in this manner, he was the object of the divine displeasure and malediction. Regarded thus as an object accursed of God, there was a propriety that the man who was executed for crime should be buried as soon as possible, that the offensive object should be hidden from the view In quoting this passage, Paul leaves out the words "of God," and simply says, that the one who was hanged on a tree was held accursed.

The sense of the passage before us is, therefore, that Jesus was subjected to what was regarded as an accursed death. He was treated in his death As If he had been a criminal. He was put to death in the same manner as he would have been if he had himself been guilty of the violation of the Law. If he had been a thief or a murderer; if he had committed the grossest and the blackest crimes, this would have been the punishment to which he would have been subjected. This was the mode of punishment adapted to those crimes, and he was treated as if all these had been committed by him. Or, in other words, if he had been guilty of all these, or any of these, he could not have been treated in a more shameful and ignominious manner than he was; nor could he have been subjected to a more cruel death. Since it has already been intimated, it does not mean that Jesus was guilty, nor that he was not the object of the approbation and love of God, but that Jesus' death was the same that it would have been if he had been the vilest of malefactors, and that that death was regarded by the Law as accursed.

It was by such substituted sorrows that we are saved; and he consented to die the most shameful and painful death, as if he were the vilest criminal, in order that the most guilty and vile of the human race might be saved. With regard to the way in which Jesus' death is connected with our justification, see the note at Galatians 2:16. It may be observed, also, that the punishment of the cross was unknown to the Hebrews in the time of Moses, and that the passage in Deuteronomy 21:23 did not refer originally to that. Nor is it known that hanging criminals alive was practiced among the Hebrews. Those who were guilty of great crimes were first stoned or otherwise put to death, and then their bodies were suspended for a few hours on a gibbet. In many cases, however, merely the head was suspended after it had been severed from the body. Genesis 40:17-19; Numbers 25:4-5. Crucifixion was not known in the time of the giving of the Law, but the Jews gave such an extent to the Law in Deuteronomy 21:23 as to include this mode of punishment (see John 19:31 ff).

The force of the argument here, as used by the apostle Paul, is, that if to be suspended on a gibbet after having been put to death was regarded as a curse, it should not be regarded as a curse in a less degree to be suspended Alive on a cross, and to be put to death in this manner. If this interpretation of the passage is correct, then it follows that this should never be used as implying, in any sense, that Christ was guilty, or that he was ill-deserving, or that he was an object of the divine displeasure, or that he poured out on him all his wrath. He was, throughout, an object of the divine love and approbation. God never loved Jesus more, or approved what he did more, than when he gave himself to death on the cross. God had no hatred toward him; He had no displeasure to express toward him. And it is this which makes the atonement so wonderful and so glorious. If God had been displeased with Jesus; if the Redeemer had been properly an object of God's wrath; if Jesus, in any sense, deserved those sorrows, there would have been no merit in Jesus' sufferings; there would have been no atonement. What merit can there be when one suffers only what he deserves? But what made the atonement so wonderful, so glorious, so benevolent; what made it an atonement at all, was that innocence was treated as if it were guilt; that the most pure, and holy, and benevolent, and lovely being on earth should consent to be treated, and should be treated by God and man, as If Jesus were the most vile and ill-deserving. This is the mystery of the atonement; this shows the wonders of the divine benevolence; this is the nature of substituted sorrow; and this lays the foundation for the offer of pardon, and for the hope of eternal salvation.
 
So because I deal fairly and ask questions to give you a lot of time to explain and defend your position, somehow I'm the "bad guy" who is just pestering you.

Frankly, that's a twisted and unfair accusation.

You have Jesus "bearing" and "covering" without ever "paying."

That doesn't resolve God's justice concerning sin.
I have answered your same questions daily on PSA and my answers have not once changed. I have no idea why you ask the same question expecting a different answer from me.
 
I will let Barnes the Calvinist educate you on what become a curs means in Galatians 3:13
(4) it cannot be mean that the Lord Jesus properly bore the penalty of the Law. His sufferings were in the place of the penalty, not the penalty itself.
LET's see what the bible says. 2 Corinthians 5:20 "Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God." 2 Corinthians 5:21 "For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him."

THIS HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH THE "LAW" FOR ALL MEN INCLUDING ISRAEL. LISTEN AND LEARN. Romans 5:19 "For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous."

question did Adam have the LAW of Moses? thank you.

101G.
 
Christ is the Law, the Law Giver, the Creator, God Incarnate.

Oh wait God cursed Himself, killed Himself, poured wrath on Himself.

hope this helps !!!
 
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