Could you point me to where God says child molestation is a sin?
When I do a word search for "molestation" it seems to be... not there at all, actually.
(I do not wish to miss if molestation is a sin, please show me where molestation is mentioned in the Bible.)
...
Oh you can't always use the exact phrase, you have to deduce truths from Scripture?
Okay. I hope maybe you see that was meant to be a parody of a really dumb way of asking what Scripture teaches.
Anyone that uses the "exact phrase only fallacy" is already deceived and doesn't understand they bring presuppositions to Scripture.
Words do not self-define. Spiritual and metaphysical truths are not somehow bound up in letters.
Once you can see how absolutely ignorantly your question was phrased, you can realize that truths can be deduced and revealed.
So in a short summary assuming your question has any real sincerity to it:
1. Scripture tells us Jesus suffers for sin in a substitutionary way.
Christ suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, he who knew no sin because sin for us, God condemned sin in the flesh in his Son's likeness of it., the Lord laid on him the iniquity of us all and made his soul an offering for sin since it pleased the Lord to crush him to justify the many, he became a ransom for many to save them from their sins through tasting death on behalf of them all.
I've elaborated on these verses both here and many other places on this forum.
2. The Law of God is ALWAYS upheld, never set aside, bypassed or ignored, so your sin CANNOT be swept under the rug by God.
For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. Righteousness and justice are the foundation of Your throne. The law brings wrath. The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul. Like the laws of the Medes and Persians, nothing can cancel it or set it aside, except its real and actual fulfillment.
But I am skeptical that your inquiry here is altogether honest because of the abundance of Scripture and argument that I've already written that you just completely ignored as unworthy of interacting with and probably even reading, just to ask a really ignorant and inherently fallacious question. I do not deal with dishonest interlocutors, as all they do is waste your time and provoke you, but I gave an honest answer here that will be enough to answer you and point you to an abundance of answers already present.
I urge you to consider that if you set aside the true meaning of Christ's atonement, you spit and trample on the holy law of God that condemns all sinners as worthy of his wrath, you minimize the evilness of your own sin by declaring Christ does not need to suffer for it, you in effect, establish your own system of righteousness whereby God does not have to actually gives your sin what it deserves, and you make a mockery of the meaning of the death of Christ turning it into an unnecessary display of self-destructiveness that serves no actual purpose towards reconciliation, and you literally have no real Biblical Gospel left, just a permissive deity and secular humanism.
If you completely double down on denying the real meaning of Christ's atonement you will end up in eternal hellfire as Scripture says there is only ONE sacrifice for sins for all time. Christ did just not just suffer unrelated physical harm, he became the curse of the law, as it clearly and literally tells us, which law promises wrath to the sinner, and the real death that is spiritual judgment from God.
Regards and peace in Christ.
