Yes, sinfulness proves our free will as it cannot arise from the will of GOD.We know we have free will by virtue of the commandment "Thou shall not". Evil is choosing to discard these words, Faith is choosing to live by these Words.
Yes, sinfulness proves our free will as it cannot arise from the will of GOD.We know we have free will by virtue of the commandment "Thou shall not". Evil is choosing to discard these words, Faith is choosing to live by these Words.
Ummm, I do not believe that HE created the world with two voices but only the possibility that those whom HE created with a free will with an equal ability and opportunity to chose by their free will to put their faith, and unproven hope, in HIM as their GOD and Saviour before sinning or to rebuke HIM by faith, an unproven hope, as a liar and therefore a false god, thereby sinning the eternal, unforgivable sin unto condemnation.
All sin and evil arose from the creature himself by his own free will and not in the least in any way from the WILL of GOD.
Yes, sinfulness proves our free will as it cannot arise from the will of GOD.
Amen, brother.All sin and evil arose from the creature himself by his own free will and not in the least in any way from the WILL of GOD.
Since it is written that GOD wants all to be saved so as to keep hell empty, it is obvious to me that HE would use HIS omniscience to know who would be damned so that then all HE would have to do to keep hell empty for all time would have been to NOT CREATE those whom HE KNEW WOULD END IN HELL!!I understand this is your belief, and you are free to adopt it. But the implication that God didn't create the serpent, or know the serpent was in the garden, or that Eve was going to listen to it and fall, and that that fall would inspire thousands and thousands of others throughout history, to turn to God in hope, is a bridge to far for me.
5 I am the LORD, and there is none else,I always find it an incredible thing that you will not rightly divide the word of God; do you not know Him by now, @jeremiah1five ?
Here is what Isaiah 45:7 says:
Isaiah 45:7 (KJV) I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these [things].
The translation of Isa. 45:7 from the Hebrew reads in the Interlinear as:
The word that is translated in the KJV and YLT, and several English versions as "evil" is Strong's Heb 7451 "ra'". The English definition is adversity; bad, evil. The grammatical use as an adjective is "evil", but as a noun which is the part used in the Isa. 45:7 it includes "distress, misery, adversity, calamity". Source: BDB at Biblehub.
The AMP has "causing peace and creating disaster". The CEB has "make prosperity and create doom". The CJB has it as "I make well-being; I create woe". These are better translations of the context and meaning of Isa. 45:7.
The context of the Isa. ch. 45 (continuing from Isa. 44:28) is of the chosen king Cyrus, approx. 150 years before Cyrus came to throne of Persia. Isaiah prophesied during the reigns of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah during the latter part of the eighth century BC from about 740 to 701 BC. (1)
Throughout this chapter God was making Himself known to Cyrus before Cyrus was even born. As Daniel prospered in the captivity under Darius and Cyrus (Dan. 6:28), it is most likely that Daniel related Isaiah's prophesy to Cyrus. Josephus believed this was so in his "Antiquities of the Jews" XI.1.2. (2)
So, Isa. 45:7 means that YHWH is the only God, and that He alone is the author of light and darkness, of peace and of adversity. He raises up kings and nations, and he throws them down (Psa. 52:5) .
The evil, or adversity that God creates are the judgments against the nations, and against people who sin; who turn to pagan idols, and turn away from Him.
So you’re basically saying that God’s nature is evil since He created evil? You’re not making any sense at all because God is holy. And in Genesis 1:31, it is written: And God saw every thing that He had made, and, behold, [it was] very good.Nowhere in the KJV is the Hebrew word translated as "calamity." The word means as written: EVIL. Morally. And Isaiah states God created evil, and this was brought into existence when God created man (and angel.)
There is only ONE God
There is NONE like Him
He gives His glory to NO ONE.
Holding to these three tenets of the Person of God everything in creation falls short of His glory. There is no way God copied, reduplicated, gave, or shared any aspect of His Nature and Deific Attributes in created man or in created material.
By the very fact God purposed to create, then in this sense alone, he created evil, because God "only" has the glorious attribute of immutability, what ever He created, whether angels, or man, could not be created with this infinite attribute that only the Highest does and can possess. He did not create evil to enjoy it, or see others whom he would create to suffer because of evil/sin/wickedness.Isaiah 45:7~"I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things."
Just a thought leading to my question. I could well be wrong, but is stuck in my head. And also setting aside that the KJV plus a scant few others are the only ones using evil....5 I am the LORD, and there is none else,
There is no God beside me:
I girded thee, though thou hast not known me:
6 That they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west,
That there is none beside me.
I am the LORD, and there is none else.
7 I form the light, and create darkness:
I make peace, and create evil:
I the LORD do all these things.
Isaiah 45:5–7.
evil: [Strong's #7451] רַע raʿ from [#7489] (ra`a`); bad or (as noun) evil (natural or moral):
English Words used in KJV:
evil 442 times
wickedness 59 times
wicked 25
mischief 21
hurt 20
bad 13
trouble 10
sore 9
affliction 6
ill 5
adversity 4
favoured 3
harm 3
naught 3
noisome 2
grievous 2
sad 2
The problem is that you take this word "evil" and change its meaning according to Westcott & Hort's corrupt Revised Version (1881) which used corrupt texts to make a supposed "revision" of the King James Version which was not a revision of the KJV but a totally new translation using older, corrupt, unused manuscripts that were found in the Vatican and in a trash can at the foot of Mount Sinai (Codex Vaticanus (B) and Codex Sinaiticus (א).)
There's enough information - even from Westcott's wife and son, that these two men were closet Catholics who practiced "Mariology" (the worshiping of Mary, etc.) Both W&H and the committee they gathered for this purpose used Greek texts that were older than the texts from which the KJV was translated, these texts were not even used by the Church of the 4th century. Their Revision did accomplish one thing and that was it created confusion among the Church when it was published (1881) and has since done great damage to the Church since its publication.
John William Burgon (1813–1888) was a prominent English Anglican divine who became the Dean of Chichester Cathedral in 1876. He is best known in the realm of biblical studies for being a fierce and vocal opponent of the textual critical methodology and resulting Greek New Testament text produced by Brooke Foss Westcott and Fenton John Anthony Hort.
Here are some key aspects of John William Burgon and his views:
Staunch Defender of the Traditional Text (Textus Receptus): Burgon was a passionate advocate for the Textus Receptus (the Greek text underlying the King James Version). He believed that God had providentially preserved the New Testament text through the vast majority of manuscripts, which largely represented the Byzantine text-type.
"The Revision Revised": His most famous work in textual criticism is "The Revision Revised" (1881), (<--- excellent study) where he launched a detailed and often polemical attack on Westcott and Hort's Greek text and the Revised Version (RV) that was based on it. He argued against the principles used by the revisers, asserting that they had adopted an unsound textual theory.
Emphasis on Quantity and Ecclesiastical Testimony: Burgon believed that the sheer number of manuscripts supporting the Traditional Text, combined with its consistent use and acceptance throughout church history, provided stronger evidence for its authenticity than the age of a few, supposedly "corrupt" manuscripts.
High View of Scriptural Inerrancy: His textual views were deeply rooted in his high view of biblical inspiration and inerrancy. He believed that if God inspired the original words, He would also providentially preserve them across the vast majority of manuscript copies.
Mostly all of modern-day, new-age English translations used Westcott and Hort's Greek Revision thus adding to an already confused body of believers, many who do not know the history of what W&H did to damage the Church of the Lord Jesus Christ since the publication of their corrupt Greek revision.
The enemy has accomplished much harm as a result of this unauthorized attempt at making a better English translation. The KJV celebrated 400 years of blessed use by believers in 2011.
Too bad you have been terribly influenced by Westcott & Hort and the damage they've caused the Church body of believers today.
Nowhere in the KJV is the Hebrew word translated as "calamity." The word means as written: EVIL. Morally. And Isaiah states God created evil, and this was brought into existence when God created man (and angel.)
There is only ONE God
There is NONE like Him
He gives His glory to NO ONE.
Holding to these three tenets of the Person of God everything in creation falls short of His glory. There is no way God copied, reduplicated, gave, or shared any aspect of His Nature and Deific Attributes in created man or in created material.
the serpent and the rest os all the angels were created good just like man was created good with the ability to choose to obey and serve God or not. The 2nd voice you are talking about occured after the fall, after choosing to rebel against God and be tossed out of heaven with the rest of those angels who rebelled against God.I understand this is your belief, and you are free to adopt it. But the implication that God didn't create the serpent, or know the serpent was in the garden, or that Eve was going to listen to it and fall, and that that fall would inspire thousands and thousands of others throughout history, to turn to God in hope, is a bridge to far for me.
Those Thephanies/Christophanies were the appearence of the Pre Incarnate Son who was also called many times "The Angel of the Lord " and identified as YHWH.Just a thought leading to my question. I could well be wrong, but is stuck in my head. And also setting aside that the KJV plus a scant few others are the only ones using evil....
I make peace, and create evil:
I the LORD do all these things.
The word means as written: EVIL. Morally. And Isaiah states God created evil, and this was brought into existence when God created man (and angel.)
Could this possibly mean that within the creation of man, this was incorporated within his free will? Lucifer was created and rebelled. So did 1/3 of the angels who chose to follow him. It is obvious they had free will... So???
Also... It is understood it was God speaking in Isiah 45:7.
As well as Isiah's vision of God in Chapter 6.
Jesus has said that John 6:46, it states "no one has seen the Father except the one who is from God; only he has seen the Father.
So how is it that Isiah had such a vivid vision.
If it was not real, then what is written is not true. But the detail would lead one to believe he did see... and so
could this not have been the 2nd person in the Godhead? Who also has the proper title of God?
I do not believe it was a Theophany. As Baker defines theophany...As the Baker Encyclopedia of the Bible states it, “The use of the term theophany is restricted here to manifestations of God in temporary forms perceptible to the external senses, and thereby excludes divine manifestations in dreams or visions…”
Obviously something happened for him to be given such specific knowledge... I just am curious as to how.
Blessings
You think Lucifers rebellion came after the fall?the serpent and the rest os all the angels were created good just like man was created good with the ability to choose to obey and serve God or not. The 2nd voice you are talking about occured after the fall, after choosing to rebel against God and be tossed out of heaven with the rest of those angels who rebelled against God.
no its the original fall but occured after the creation week.You think Lucifers rebellion came after the fall?
Here is one to consider, though I cannot prove it at all, for years now I have believed the creation and entirety of God's plan
came about because of Lucifer's rebellion.... Just my thoughts.
Carry on.
The word "good" in the creative narrative has no reference to "good" (or evil) as a moral quality. It is a word that merely means "good enough" or "to specification." We say the same thing daily in our lives. One example is after we cook a meal and after tasting it, we exclaim it is "good" or came out "good" (to specification as the recipe instructed.) God created man and He was pleased with the result. It was to His particular "specification."So you’re basically saying that God’s nature is evil since He created evil? You’re not making any sense at all because God is holy. And in Genesis 1:31, it is written: And God saw every thing that He had made, and, behold, [it was] very good.
s e l a h
the serpent and the rest os all the angels were created good just like man was created good with the ability to choose to obey and serve God or not. The 2nd voice you are talking about occured after the fall, after choosing to rebel against God and be tossed out of heaven with the rest of those angels who rebelled against God.
There is no free will in man or angel. Everything is ordained as creation was ordained to 'function' being created.Just a thought leading to my question. I could well be wrong, but is stuck in my head. And also setting aside that the KJV plus a scant few others are the only ones using evil....
I make peace, and create evil:
I the LORD do all these things.
The word means as written: EVIL. Morally. And Isaiah states God created evil, and this was brought into existence when God created man (and angel.)
Could this possibly mean that within the creation of man, this was incorporated within his free will? Lucifer was created and rebelled. So did 1/3 of the angels who chose to follow him. It is obvious they had free will... So???
Also... It is understood it was God speaking in Isiah 45:7.
As well as Isiah's vision of God in Chapter 6.
Jesus has said that John 6:46, it states "no one has seen the Father except the one who is from God; only he has seen the Father.
So how is it that Isiah had such a vivid vision.
If it was not real, then what is written is not true. But the detail would lead one to believe he did see... and so
could this not have been the 2nd person in the Godhead? Who also has the proper title of God?
I do not believe it was a Theophany. As Baker defines theophany...As the Baker Encyclopedia of the Bible states it, “The use of the term theophany is restricted here to manifestations of God in temporary forms perceptible to the external senses, and thereby excludes divine manifestations in dreams or visions…”
Obviously something happened for him to be given such specific knowledge... I just am curious as to how.
Blessings
it's sad really, that you are one of the promoters of this world's religions and you are more interested in justify your own religion, than seeking God's Truth.Again, you refuse to even address the point of my post, choosing instead to preach down to me.
But if you were interested in an actual discussion of the Holy Scriptures, I would ask, "Wasn't Eve created perfect", after the image of God? And didn't God create the "other voice" in the garden? And wasn't that garden symbolic of Eve's mind. I would contend that the other voice existed the moment God said "Thou shall not". And this voice waited until she was away from her "head" to make itself known. This voice exists in the minds of every child I have ever seen. It existed in Cain and Abel, and Cain was instructed to "Rule over it", as we all are. And didn't God know Eve would listen to this voice before HE even created the garden? And what was the purpose of that? To destroy her? To facilitate to fall of mankind?
Or is it to teach men who seek Him, how incredibly dangerous it is to have free will, even as a mortal human. Not only because of the effect it can have on us, but even more importantly the effect it can have on others. How much more then, for an immortal being with the power of God. And HE isn't going to let someone who, with their free will, refuse to follow even the simplest and most basic instructions from their Creator, like what to eat or what to drink, or who to be covered with, into His Kingdom. Perhaps God is teaching His people through examples, which is how HE teaches His People, the importance of submitting to the instructions of the God who created you, even instructions the religions of this world despise, and the voice in your mind tells you to discard. Are these not the battles His people engage in daily? Is this not the fight Eve should have engaged in. "against principalities, against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this world, against spiritual wickedness in high places. (Her Mind?)
And why is it so difficult to have this discussion, especially with the promoters of this world's religious system?
Anyway, there is so much of the Gospel of Christ revealed in the first 3 chapters of the Holy Scriptures, it's sad really, that the promoters of this world's religions are more interested in justify their religion, than seeking God's Truth.
where is that scripture in the bible?Scripture states God created man and man was created sinful
God create, not created evil. Isaiah 45:7 "I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things." 101G see no ed at the end of create. meaning that he is the Author of Evil. just as the mistake many think that the devil is sin, no he's only evil.Not only did God Author and create evil, He said "It was very good!"
So God chose Lucifer to rebel? And 1/3 of the angels, allegedly.There is no free will in man or angel. Everything is ordained as creation was ordained to 'function' being created.
Not even God has free will in the same sense as man, that is, God has only ONE will: Good. The statement of:
22 Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: Genesis 3:22.
is a misnomer. God does not "know" (experimentally) "evil."
The "sin nature" of man came into existence by virtue of his being created. Man sinned because he is a sinner; he is not a sinner because he sinned. The first upholds the Doctrine of Imputation; the other does not.