Data on John 1:1

If you are having trouble figuring out the incarnation of the Son, maybe there are some people that can help guide you.
personal Opinion? did 101G asked for help? no, but an answer to a question. if you cannot answer it just say so. nor do 101G needs a guide beside the Holy Spirit. so, can you answer 101G question.... "How much of the ONE Spirit was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') 1. to make empty according to Philippians 2:7 for the person whom you call son, to come in flesh".

101G.
 
personal Opinion? did 101G asked for help? no, but an answer to a question. if you cannot answer it just say so. nor do 101G needs a guide beside the Holy Spirit. so, can you answer 101G question.... "How much of the ONE Spirit was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') 1. to make empty according to Philippians 2:7 for the person whom you call son, to come in flesh".

101G.
I'm not sure what your confusion is that you should limit the Trinity in this sense.
 
I'm not sure what your confusion is that you should limit the Trinity in this sense.
no confusion on 101G part, you said God incarnated in flesh, 101G agree. just because 101G ask how he incarnated in flesh is that confusion? see, 101G believes that the Lord Jesus is God, and he came/incarnated in flesh, just as the scripture's states. but the question 101G has is this.... "How did the ONE Spirit G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') 1. to make empty.... himself while in that flesh.?" was it 1/3 of the Spirit that was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') or 1/2 of the Spirit. or all of the Spirit, or none of the Spirit. so can you answer that?

101G.
 
you said God incarnated in flesh, 101G agree. just because 101G ask how he incarnated in flesh is that confusion? see, 101G believes that the Lord Jesus is God, and he came/incarnated in flesh, just as the scripture's states. but the question 101G has is this.... "How did the ONE Spirit G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') 1. to make empty.... himself while in that flesh.?" was it 1/3 of the Spirit that was G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') or 1/2 of the Spirit. or all of the Spirit, or none of the Spirit. so can you answer that?
Error-

@101G' statement reflects a misunderstanding of the nature of God, particularly in the context of the Incarnation as described in Scripture. Here’s how we can systematically address the errors in this reasoning while providing a biblically sound explanation of Philippians 2:7 (κενόω, "kenoo") and the Incarnation:

1. The Fullness of Deity in Christ
The Bible makes it clear that Jesus Christ, in His Incarnation, was fully God and fully man. The "emptying" described in Philippians 2:7 does not imply any division or reduction in the divine nature.

Scriptural Basis:
Colossians 2:9: “For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily.”

John 1:14: “And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.”

Hebrews 1:3: “He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature.”


The fullness of God’s Spirit (the divine essence) was present in Jesus Christ.


The idea that God could be "split" into parts (e.g., one-third or one-half) is entirely foreign to Scripture.

God’s essence is indivisible, and His omnipresence ensures that He is fully present everywhere.

2. Understanding Philippians 2:7 – The "Emptying" (κενόω, kenoo)
The Greek term kenoo does not mean that Jesus ceased to be God or that God divided His Spirit. Instead, it refers to Christ’s voluntary humility and self-limitation in taking on human form.

Philippians 2:6–7 (Lexham Bible):
"Who, existing in the form of God, did not consider being equal with God something to be grasped, but emptied himself [κενόω], taking the form of a slave, by becoming in the likeness of people."
Key Explanation:

Kenoo refers to Jesus relinquishing His divine privileges, not His divine essence.

He voluntarily chose to lay aside the independent exercise of His divine attributes to fully experience humanity, including its limitations (e.g., hunger, tiredness, pain).

This "emptying" is not a subtraction of deity but an addition of humanity. Jesus did not cease to be God; rather, He veiled His glory and submitted to the limitations of human existence.


It is incorrect to suggest that kenoo involves a quantitative division of God’s Spirit. Instead, it reflects the self-giving nature of God, who humbled Himself by taking on flesh without compromising His divinity.

3. God’s Indivisibility and Omnipresence
The notion of God dividing into portions (e.g., "1/3" or "1/2" of the Spirit) contradicts the biblical teaching of God’s nature:

Scriptural Basis:

John 4:24: “God is spirit, and those who worship him must worship in spirit and truth.”

Psalm 139:7–8: “Where shall I go from your Spirit? Or where shall I flee from your presence? If I ascend to heaven, you are there! If I make my bed in Sheol, you are there!”


God’s Spirit is omnipresent and indivisible. The Incarnation does not involve a "partitioning" of God’s Spirit but rather the personal union of the divine and human natures in Jesus Christ. Christ was fully God, and His divine essence remained undiminished, even as He took on the limitations of humanity.

4. Logical and Theological Coherence
@101G' question assumes a finite view of God, which is incompatible with the infinite nature of the divine essence. God cannot be divided into "parts" or "fractions" because He is a simple, indivisible being.


The Incarnation was not a dilution of God’s essence but a miraculous union of the divine and human natures in the one person of Jesus Christ (the hypostatic union). God the Son took on human nature without ceasing to be fully God.


Asking whether "1/3 or 1/2 of the Spirit" was emptied reflects a category error, misunderstanding God’s infinite nature.

God’s essence is not quantifiable, and the Incarnation does not involve any division or subtraction of His Spirit.

5. Scriptural Clarity on the Incarnation
The Bible presents the Incarnation as a mystery that cannot be fully comprehended but clearly teaches that Christ was fully God and fully man.

1 Timothy 3:16: “Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness: He was manifested in the flesh…”

John 1:1, 14: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God… And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us.”


The focus should not be on attempting to divide God’s Spirit but on understanding the profound humility of God in taking on human form to accomplish redemption.


Conclusion
@101G question misunderstands both the nature of God and the meaning of kenoo. The Incarnation does not involve a division of God’s Spirit, as His essence is indivisible and infinite. Instead, kenoo refers to Christ’s voluntary humility and self-limitation, not a reduction or partitioning of His divine nature. Jesus, fully God and fully man, accomplished salvation through this miraculous union, retaining the fullness of His deity while living as a true human.

@101G' argument refuted.

J.
 
if he relinquishes His divine privileges then he is not God.
Your argument is flawed.

Your assertion that Christ ceasing to exercise His divine privileges means He is no longer God reflects a misunderstanding of the nature of the Incarnation and the meaning of kenosis in Philippians 2:7. It is essential to clarify that relinquishing privileges does not equate to ceasing to be God.

1. Christ Did Not Relinquish His Divine Nature
The divine nature of Christ remained fully intact during the Incarnation. Philippians 2:7 speaks of Jesus "emptying Himself" by taking on human form, not by ceasing to be divine.

Key Scripture:
Colossians 2:9: “For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily.”

John 1:1, 14: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God… And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us.”


The relinquishing of divine privileges refers to His choice not to fully display or independently exercise His divine powers during His earthly life. For example:

He veiled His glory (John 17:5), which He possessed from eternity.
He chose dependence on the Father (John 5:19).
He submitted to human limitations, such as hunger (Matthew 4:2) and fatigue (John 4:6).

These acts of humility were voluntary and consistent with His divine character. They do not indicate a cessation of His deity but rather the addition of humanity.

2. Divine Nature vs. Divine Privileges


It is crucial to differentiate between divine nature and divine privileges:

The divine nature refers to the essential attributes of God (e.g., omnipotence, omnipresence, omniscience).
Divine privileges refer to the prerogatives of deity, such as the constant manifestation of divine glory or the independent exercise of divine power.

Christ voluntarily chose to forgo certain privileges without forfeiting His divine essence. This is similar to a king choosing to dress as a servant without ceasing to be a king.

3. Jesus’ Acts Demonstrate He Retained His Divinity
Throughout His earthly ministry, Jesus displayed divine authority, showing He did not cease to be God:

Forgiving sins: Only God can forgive sins, and Jesus did so (Mark 2:5–7).
Commanding nature: Jesus calmed the storm (Mark 4:39).
Claiming divine prerogatives: Jesus declared, “Before Abraham was, I am” (John 8:58), identifying Himself as Yahweh (Exodus 3:14).
Receiving worship: Jesus accepted worship, which is due only to God (Matthew 14:33; John 20:28).
These actions prove that He retained His divine nature even while humbling Himself.

4. Philippians 2:7 Does Not Mean Jesus Ceased Being God
The term kenoo (κενόω) in Philippians 2:7, “emptied Himself,” must be understood in its context:

It does not mean He emptied Himself of deity but that He humbled Himself by taking on human nature and living as a servant.

The text specifies how He emptied Himself: "by taking the form of a servant" (morphē doulou). This means the "emptying" involved adding humanity, not subtracting deity.

Analogy: Think of light shining through a veil. The light remains fully present but is temporarily obscured by the veil. Similarly, Christ’s divine nature was fully present, though veiled by His humanity.

5. God’s Nature Is Immutable
God’s nature is unchanging (Malachi 3:6). If Jesus had ceased to be God at any point, He would no longer be the eternal Son of God. Instead, the Incarnation demonstrates that the immutable God entered time and space without any alteration to His essence.

Hebrews 13:8: “Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever.”


Relinquishing divine privileges does not equate to a loss of deity, just as a king choosing to work alongside his servants does not cease to be a king. It was an act of humility, not of change in nature.

6. Theological Error of the Assertion
@101G' statement assumes a zero-sum framework: that Christ could not be fully God if He chose not to fully exercise His divine attributes. This misunderstands the hypostatic union:

Hypostatic Union: Jesus is one person with two natures-fully God and fully man. These natures are united without confusion, change, division, or separation (as defined at the Council of Chalcedon in 451 AD).
The Incarnation involves the addition of human nature, not the subtraction of divine nature.

7. Scriptural Affirmation of Christ’s Humility and Divinity
The humility of Christ in the Incarnation magnifies, rather than diminishes, His deity:

Philippians 2:6–8: "Who, existing in the form of God, did not consider being equal with God something to be grasped, but emptied himself by taking the form of a servant, by becoming in the likeness of people. And being found in appearance like a man, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, that is, death on a cross."

The “form of God” (morphē theou) indicates that Christ existed fully as God.

The “form of a servant” (morphē doulou) shows His humility in taking on humanity.

This passage shows that the emptying is not about ceasing to be God but about adding the experience of human servanthood and submission.

Conclusion
The idea that relinquishing divine privileges makes Jesus less than God is theologically flawed and unbiblical.

Jesus, in His Incarnation, retained the fullness of His deity while voluntarily veiling His divine glory and choosing to live in dependence on the Father. This act of humility magnifies His divine character, demonstrating the lengths God would go to redeem humanity. The hypostatic union assures us that Jesus is fully God and fully man-always and eternally.

@101G refuted.

J.
 
1. Christ Did Not Relinquish His Divine Nature
The divine nature of Christ remained fully intact during the Incarnation. Philippians 2:7 speaks of Jesus "emptying Himself" by taking on human form, not by ceasing to be divine.

Key Scripture:
Colossians 2:9: “For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily.”
are you kidding, Colossians 2:9: “For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily.” is POST RESURRECTION. so that is rebuked.

John 1:1, 14: “I
the term "WITH" expose your error, for the term WITH shows that this is the same one person. so, that is rebutted also.
Hypostatic Union: Jesus is one person with two natures-fully God and fully man. These natures are united without confusion, change, division, or separation (as defined at the Council of Chalcedon in 451 AD).
The Incarnation involves the addition of human nature, not the subtraction of divine nature.
Third ERROR, for the flesh is not Godly, but natural..... blood is Natural Life, but the Spirit is not natural.. so that is rebutted.
The “form of God” (morphē theou) indicates that Christ existed fully as God.
and not fully man... LOL, for the NATURAL FLESH is a corruption. so a fourth ERROR, AND REBUTTED.
Jesus, in His Incarnation, retained the fullness of His deity while voluntarily veiling His divine glory and choosing to live in dependence on the Father.
a 5th. ERROR. listen, John 10:15 "As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep."
NOW, what "LIFE" did he God Lay down? blood. which is the LIFE of the flesh, and God is NOT NATURAL FLESH. see Leviticus 17:11. so, that's ERROR #6. and rebutted.

101G.
 
are you kidding, Colossians 2:9: “For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily.” is POST RESURRECTION. so that is rebuked.
@101G is intellectually dishonest.
the term "WITH" expose your error, for the term WITH shows that this is the same one person. so, that is rebutted also.
This is what happens when you take snippets of my post!

Καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν
(Kai ho Logos ēn pros ton Theon)


"Καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν" (Kai ho Logos ēn):

"And the Word was" - The Word (Logos), which is eternal, is introduced as existing continuously (ēn is in the imperfect tense, implying an ongoing state).
"πρὸς τὸν Θεόν" (pros ton Theon):

"With God" - The preposition pros is particularly significant. While it can mean "with," it more vividly conveys a sense of proximity, relationship, or even orientation toward.
Pros implies the Word was not only with God but in intimate communion, "face-to-face" with Him, as two persons in close fellowship.
Rendering the Concept Creatively:
If we want to emphasize the idea of face-to-face intimacy implied in pros, we might poetically rephrase it:

"The Word was in direct, personal fellowship with God, perfectly aligned, face-to-face in eternal relationship."

The choice of pros paints a picture of dynamic closeness, suggesting not just spatial proximity but a relationship of harmony, unity, and shared purpose. It highlights that the Word (Jesus) and God were eternally distinct yet inseparably united in divine essence.
Third ERROR, for the flesh is not Godly, but natural..... blood is Natural Life, but the Spirit is not natural.. so that is rebutted.
Jesus is one person with two natures-fully God and fully man.

@101G needs to study.
and not fully man... LOL, for the NATURAL FLESH is a corruption. so a fourth ERROR, AND REBUTTED.
Jesus is one person with two natures-fully God and fully man.

@101G needs to study.


5th. ERROR. listen, John 10:15 "As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep."
NOW, what "LIFE" did he God Lay down? blood. which is the LIFE of the flesh, and God is NOT NATURAL FLESH. see Leviticus 17:11. so, that's ERROR #6. and rebutted.
Jesus, in His Incarnation, retained the fullness of His deity while voluntarily veiling His divine glory and choosing to live in dependence on the Father.

The Word (ho logos). Logos is from legō, old word in Homer to lay by, to collect, to put words side by side, to speak, to express an opinion. Logos is common for reason as well as speech. Heraclitus used it for the principle which controls the universe. The Stoics employed it for the soul of the world (anima mundi) and Marcus Aurelius used spermatikos logos for the generative principle in nature. The Hebrew memra was used in the Targums for the manifestation of God like the Angel of Jehovah and the Wisdom of God in Pro_8:23. Dr. J. Rendel Harris thinks that there was a lost wisdom book that combined phrases in Proverbs and in the Wisdom of Solomon which John used for his Prologue (The Origin of the Prologue to St. John, p. 43) which he has undertaken to reproduce.

At any rate John’s standpoint is that of the Old Testament and not that of the Stoics nor even of Philo who uses the term Logos, but not John’s conception of personal pre-existence. The term Logos is applied to Christ only in Joh_1:1, Joh_1:14; Rev_19:13; 1Jn_1:1 “concerning the Word of life” (an incidental argument for identity of authorship). There is a possible personification of “the Word of God” in Heb_4:12. But the personal pre-existence of Christ is taught by Paul (2Co_8:9; Php_2:6.; Col_1:17) and in Heb_1:2. and in Joh_17:5. This term suits John’s purpose better than sophia (wisdom) and is his answer to the Gnostics who either denied the actual humanity of Christ (Docetic Gnostics) or who separated the aeon Christ from the man Jesus (Cerinthian Gnostics). The pre-existent Logos “became flesh” (sarx egeneto, Joh_1:14) and by this phrase John answered both heresies at once.

With God (pros ton theon). Though existing eternally with God the Logos was in perfect fellowship with God. Pros with the accusative presents a plane of equality and intimacy, face to face with each other. In 1Jn_2:1 we have a like use of pros: “We have a Paraclete with the Father” (paraklēton echomen pros ton patera). See prosōpon pros prosōpon (face to face, 1Co_13:12), a triple use of pros. There is a papyrus example of pros in this sense to gnōston tēs pros allēlous sunētheias, “the knowledge of our intimacy with one another” (M.&M., Vocabulary) which answers the claim of Rendel Harris, Origin of Prologue, p. 8) that the use of pros here and in Mar_6:3 is a mere Aramaism. It is not a classic idiom, but this is Koiné, not old Attic. In Joh_17:5 John has para soi the more common idiom.
And the Word was God (kai theos ēn ho logos). By exact and careful language John denied Sabellianism by not saying ho theos ēn ho logos. That would mean that all of God was expressed in ho logos and the terms would be interchangeable, each having the article. The subject is made plain by the article (ho logos) and the predicate without it (theos) just as in Joh_4:24 pneuma ho theos can only mean “God is spirit,” not “spirit is God.” So in 1Jn_4:16 ho theos agapē estin can only mean “God is love,” not “love is God” as a so-called Christian scientist would confusedly say. For the article with the predicate see Robertson, Grammar, pp. 767f. So in Joh_1:14 ho Logos sarx egeneto, “the Word became flesh,” not “the flesh became Word.” Luther argues that here John disposes of Arianism also because the Logos was eternally God, fellowship of Father and Son, what Origen called the Eternal Generation of the Son (each necessary to the other). Thus in the Trinity we see personal fellowship on an equality.
Robertson.
Php 2:7 but emptied Himself [without renouncing or diminishing His deity, but only temporarily giving up the outward expression of divine equality and His rightful dignity] by assuming the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men [He became completely human but was without sin, being fully God and fully man].


emptied Himself -- Christ emptied Himself of His heavenly glory, Joh_17:5. He humbled Himself and did the Father bidding (Php_2:8; Joh_4:34; Joh_6:38; Joh_15:10; Joh_17:4;
It does not mean he emptied Himself of his God-hood, or Deity.

form of a bond-servant -- This speaks of Jesus humbling self to become a servant. Mat_20:28; Mar_10:45.

made in likeness of men -- This is speaking of the incarnation, Emmanuel, "God with us."

Jesus' Steps In His Self-Emptying Life
1) He emptied Himself - v. 7
2) He took a human body - v.7
3) He became a servant - v. 7
4) He obeyed all the way to the cross - v.8

verse 7 Not a surrender of Divinity but a self-renunciation, a denial of self and becoming a servant. He set aside the glory.

Set Aside His Privileges
1) heavenly glory
2) independent authority
3) divine prerogative (attributes)
4) eternal riches
5) a favorable relationship with the Father (Mat_27:46)


@101 needs to study.

Pride comes in all forms and manifestations, be careful.

J.
 
Like a man do? ........... better

101G.
How do you think Mary got pregnant? What do you think Luke 1:35 means...

And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
 
are you kidding, Colossians 2:9: “For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily.” is POST RESURRECTION. so that is rebuked.


101G.

You miss how Paul speaks of Christ in 1:15 speaks of Christ -- "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation." (ESV)

Paul speaks of Jesus as image of God in present tense even though Jesus is unseen now. Jesus still possesses his body and continues his existence. He is the same without interruption from his walk on earth (excepting the 3 days of death of his body). Thus he can be described now as we was when among man. Apart from having resurrected body and now in the glorified sense, he remains the same person. It is no more nor less of the fullness of deity within Christ (Col 2:9) between his walk on earth and his continuing existence.
 
How do you think Mary got pregnant? What do you think Luke 1:35 means...

And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
God can only Speak and it is done. now this is back-up in your Luke verse. listen and Learn.
Luke 1:35 "And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing, (thing, here means flesh), which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God". notice shall be called, not named, but called Son of God, (flesh is born), Son of God means flesh on earth. go back to Isaiah. 9:6, "unto us a child is born". so Son of God means, flesh in nature, a nature that will suffer the cross.
note also the word overshadow, it's the Greek word G1982 ἐπισκιάζω episkiazo (ep-ee-skee-ad'-zo) v.
1. to cast a shade upon
2. (by analogy) to envelop in a haze of brilliancy
3. (figuratively) to invest with preternatural influence

take note of the 3rd. reference. "to invest with preternatural influence", what do preternatural means. I "out of the ordinary course of nature; exceptional or abnormal". the meaning here, not in the natural way of conception between a man and a women. this body as I have said, God conceived or God made, and “formed” in Mary’s womb. God can ... as said, just speak and it's done.
oh my.

101G.
 
You miss how Paul speaks of Christ in 1:15 speaks of Christ -- "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation." (ESV)

Paul speaks of Jesus as image of God in present tense even though Jesus is unseen now.
LOL, Oh boy, yes, Jesus is Spirit, Eternal, MANIFESTED, ..... MANIFESTED... are we getting it? he had to be before he ... MANIFESTED ... hello.

101G.
 
@101G is intellectually dishonest.
personal opinion?
This is what happens when you take snippets of my post!
another
personal opinion?

αὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν
(Kai ho Logos ēn pros ton Theon)


"Καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν" (Kai ho Logos ēn):

"And the Word was" - The Word (Logos), which is eternal, is introduced as existing continuously (ēn is in the imperfect tense, implying an ongoing state).
"πρὸς τὸν Θεόν" (pros ton Theon):

"With God" - The preposition pros is particularly significant. While it can mean "with," it more vividly conveys a sense of proximity, relationship, or even orientation toward.
Pros implies the Word was not only with God but in intimate communion, "face-to-face" with Him, as two persons in close fellowship.
Rendering the Concept Creatively:
If we want to emphasize the idea of face-to-face intimacy implied in pros, we might poetically rephrase it:
see this is why many are so IGNORANT TODAY... believe men over GOD... Listen and LEARN. the term "WITH". 101G will use BIBLE.
Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."
see that term "WITH", do it mean "two persons in close fellowship" as you said? let's see, Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." now get a dictionary and look up what "ALSO" means.

now your whole argument falls apart. meaning you're in false doctrine. IT'S THE SAME ONE PERSON, JUST AS IN JOHN 1:1b "the Word was .... "WITH" ... God. Oh how simple this is when one take God Word over men IGNORANT men words.

101G.

PS 101G suggest you re-reread those verses above again.
 
God withholds His wrath and justice all of the time with restraint since He is also long suffering not willing that anyone will perish but for all to come to repentance
Correct, but while in .... NATURAL FLESH did he have his divine POWER while in FLESH... as the Ordinal Last? see, how 101G said that. for upon resurrection "ALL POWER IS GIVEN HIM" is this correct? question how much is left out of ALL?

101G.
 
personal opinion?

another
personal opinion?


see this is why many are so IGNORANT TODAY... believe men over GOD... Listen and LEARN. the term "WITH". 101G will use BIBLE.
Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."
see that term "WITH", do it mean "two persons in close fellowship" as you said? let's see, Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." now get a dictionary and look up what "ALSO" means.

now your whole argument falls apart. meaning you're in false doctrine. IT'S THE SAME ONE PERSON, JUST AS IN JOHN 1:1b "the Word was .... "WITH" ... God. Oh how simple this is when one take God Word over men IGNORANT men words.

101G.

PS 101G suggest you re-reread those verses above again.
I am learning-but not from you.

J.
 
I am learning-but not from you.

J.
Look, 101G can care-less who you LEARN from. but learning from men haven't done any good. now let's put our thinking caps on for a second.
SCRIPTURE, Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he." one more scripture, John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
the First ... "WITH" the Last, and the Word ... "WITH" ... God. IT'S THE SAME ONE PERSON.

Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." I, I, I, I, ALSO am? hello, it's the same one PERSON. My God how hard is it.

see, that term ALSO spells the end to any three person Godhead. for also means, "in addition; too" the SAME ONE PERSON. this should put an END to any three-person Godhead.

read em and weep.

101G.
 
Now to understand the Plurality of God, one need to go back to Genesis 1:1 and get your mistake corrected. Genesis 1:1 "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth." THE THREE-HEADED GODHEAD ERROR LAY WITHIN THIS VERSE.

101G.
 
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