Christendom's Trinity: Where Did It Come From?

atpollard:

You are telling us what YOU believe. Suppose you copy-paste the definition of begotten from a reliable dictionary (along with the weblink) to prove to the rest of us that the word "begotten" means, according to you: "single of its kind, only."
John 1:18 [MGT] θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλποντοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
John 1:18 [NKJV] No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared [Him].
μονογενὴς = this is the critical word in the original Greek.
This is the LINK to “Google Translate”
[You made this a little harder by rejecting most authoritative sources - like STRONG’S - as being Trinitarian lies. Google Translate doesn’t have a theological position … it is just translating a word.]
This is the result from Google Translate:
μονογενὴς (monogenís) = “only child”
Here is what STRONG’S says:
μονογενής monogenḗs, mon-og-en-ace'; from G3441 and G1096; only-born, i.e. sole:—only (begotten, child).
Here is what THAYER’S says:
μονογενής, -ές (μόνος and γένος) (Cicero, unigena; Vulg. [in Luke unicus, elsewhere] and in ecclesiastical writings unigenitus), single of its kind, only,[A. V. only-begotten]; used of only sons or daughters (viewed in relation to their parents), Hesiod theog. 426, 448; Herodotus 7, 221; Plato, Critias 113 d.; Josephus, Antiquities 1, 13, 1; 2, 7, 4;


Thus, the original GREEK word contains no “created” in its meaning. It just means that God has no children except Jesus … Jesus is an only-son.
 
Exactly, Peterlag. Not only that, Trinitarians can't get it through their heads that had Jesus been in his original godlike state (prior to him coming to earth) mere humans would not have been able to kill him.

Jesus was a god only while he was in heaven (and that's god in lower case). According to scripture ALL of the angels in heaven are given the title god.

"A Psalm of Asaph. God presides in the divine assembly; He renders judgment among the gods:" (Psalm 82:1 -- Berean Standard Bible)
Yeah... just the idea of killing God just floors me.
 
A question requiring a TRUE or FALSE answer does not provide for any "explanation with points" aka exceptions. The answer has to be either simply TRUE or FALSE and nothing else.

Below is an image of a scantron. Let me ask you this, Capbook: When taking exams in school and the answer is supposed to be either TRUE or FALSE on the scantron and you blot out the correct box that is either TRUE or FALSE, does that Scantron allow for an "explanation with points" for any of the answers?


Before I address your "scantron image," I noticed that you skip to answer my Post#80 response. Why Alter2Ego?
See it below;

And firstly, don't you know that your used of the "Tetragrammaton" is the Latinized?
Can you answer Yes or no? Or true or false?
I just to follow your style of questioning or you will have to reason and explain.

Psa 83:18 And let them know that You, Whose Name is יהוה, You alone are the Most High over all the earth.

Capbook,

The name Jehovah is the Latinized version of the Tetragrammaton, true. But what has that to do with the topic of this thread?

You are trying to change the goal post. It's called stalling. What are you running from? Oh, now I remember. You're running from the fact that Christendom's 3-in-1 god is pagan in origin and that you--as a Trinitarian--are disobeying Almighty Jehovah God who made it clear that he is singular.

“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah." (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- New World Translation)


"Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah:" (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- American Standard Version)


"Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah;" (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- Young's Literal Translation)


"Hear, Israel; Jehovah our God is one Jehovah." (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- Smith's Literal Translation


"Hear, Israel: LORD JEHOVAH our God, LORD JEHOVAH is one:" (Deuteronomy 6:4 --Peshitta Holy Bible Translated"


Look at the above. In addition to the New World Translation (published by Jehovah's people) even some of the Trinitarian Bible translators had the decency to include the most commonly accepted English translation of the Divine name in small portions of their Bibles. And you're making an issue of Jehovah's Witnesses using it? You should be ashamed for not doing likewise!
 
Capbook,

The name Jehovah is the Latinized version of the Tetragrammaton, true. But what has that to do with the topic of this thread?

You are trying to change the goal post. It's called stalling. What are you running from? Oh, now I remember. You're running from the fact that Christendom's 3-in-1 god is pagan in origin and that you--as a Trinitarian--are disobeying Almighty Jehovah God who made it clear that he is singular.

“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah." (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- New World Translation)


"Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah:" (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- American Standard Version)


"Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah;" (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- Young's Literal Translation)


"Hear, Israel; Jehovah our God is one Jehovah." (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- Smith's Literal Translation


"Hear, Israel: LORD JEHOVAH our God, LORD JEHOVAH is one:" (Deuteronomy 6:4 --Peshitta Holy Bible Translated"


Look at the above. In addition to the New World Translation (published by Jehovah's people) even some of the Trinitarian Bible translators had the decency to include the most commonly accepted English translation of the Divine name in small portions of their Bibles. And you're making an issue of Jehovah's Witnesses using it? You should be ashamed for not doing likewise!
Oops. The English translations are using the invalid option of naming God. But also, the Oneness of God makes sense in light of the Triune essence of God. You may like using this improper naming, but it sure distracts from any reasoned discussion.
 
atpollard:

You are telling us what YOU believe. Suppose you copy-paste the definition of begotten from a reliable dictionary (along with the weblink) to prove to the rest of us that the word "begotten" means, according to you: "single of its kind, only." Meanwhile, I will go with Merriam-Webster and a couple of other dictionaries that give the correct meaning of the word begotten.

John 1:18 [MGT] θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλποντοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
John 1:18 [NKJV] No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared [Him].
μονογενὴς = this is the critical word in the original Greek.
This is the LINK to “Google Translate”
[You made this a little harder by rejecting most authoritative sources - like STRONG’S - as being Trinitarian lies. Google Translate doesn’t have a theological position … it is just translating a word.]
This is the result from Google Translate:
μονογενὴς (monogenís) = “only child”
Here is what STRONG’S says:
μονογενής monogenḗs, mon-og-en-ace'; from G3441 and G1096; only-born, i.e. sole:—only (begotten, child).
Here is what THAYER’S says:
μονογενής, -ές (μόνος and γένος) (Cicero, unigena; Vulg. [in Luke unicus, elsewhere] and in ecclesiastical writings unigenitus), single of its kind, only,[A. V. only-begotten]; used of only sons or daughters (viewed in relation to their parents), Hesiod theog. 426, 448; Herodotus 7, 221; Plato, Critias 113 d.; Josephus, Antiquities 1, 13, 1; 2, 7, 4;


Thus, the original GREEK word contains no “created” in its meaning. It just means that God has no children except Jesus … Jesus is an only-son.

atpollard:

I asked you to quote from a reliable dictionary (along with its weblink) to show us where it defines the word begotten, to quote you: "single of its kind, only."

Instead, you quoted from Strong's Concordance which was published by Trinitarians and Thayer's Lexicon which was also published by Trinitarians. You don't need for me to tell you that Bible Concordances and Bible Lexicons were NOT written by inspiration of Jehovah God.


"James Strong (1822-1894), author of Strong’s Concordance, has been elevated to the position of fourth member of the Trinity by many. His corrupt Greek and Hebrew definitions pepper today’s preaching, as if his lexicon was the final and 67th book of the Bible. His liberal definitions are used as quick and weak patches to fill a void in sermons. The space would be better filled by a laborious looking up of all the Bible’s usages of a word."



Thayer's Lexicon is actually piggy-backing off Strong's Concordance. Joseph F. Thayer was a prominent member of Christendom. While some of his research work on the scriptures might be viewed as acceptable, one has to take some of his writings with a pinch of salt.

"Thayer's Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament : coded with the numbering system from Strong's exhaustive concordance of the Bible"


Trinitarian publications have zero credibility when discussing the topic of a 3-prong god.
 
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atpollard:

John 1:1 has three independent clauses. Look at Clause #1. It says: "In the beginning was the Word...."

According to Christendom's Trinity, Jesus Christ aka "the Word" does not have a beginning.


Christendom's Trinity is defined as follows:
"There is but one living and true God, everlasting, without body, parts, or passions; of infinite power, wisdom, and goodness; the maker and preserver of all things both visible and indivisible. And in unity of this Godhead there be three persons, of ONE substance, power, and ETERNITY; the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost."

An eternal person cannot have a beginning.



DEFINITION OF ETERNAL:

"1: having no beginning and no end in time: lasting forever"


That's the first clue that Clause #3 where it says: "and the Word was God," is nothing more than manipulation of scripture by Trinitarian Bible translators.


Ummm … “In the beginning was the word” indicates that when EVERYTHING BEGAN (the beginning = second 1 of minute 1 of hour 1 of day 1 of creation) “the WORD” already existed (“was”: a form of the verb “to be” indicating past tense; already existed).

You are acting as if it says “In the beginning God created the Word”, but it does NOT say that.

That's incorrect, atpollard. You're trying to talk your way around scripture. The context to John 1:1 further demonstrates that the individual called "the Word" aka Jesus Christ, had a beginning and was therefore a created being. Look, below, at part of the context to John 1:1 from three different Trinitarian Bibles.


"No one has ever yet seen God. The only begotten God, the One being in the bosom of the Father, He has made Him known." (John 1:18 -- Berean Literal Bible)


"God no one hath ever seen; the only begotten Son, who is on the bosom of the Father -- he did declare." (John 1:18 -- Young's Literal Translation)


"None has seen God at any time; the only born Son, he being in the bosom of the Father, he has declared." (John 1:18 -- Smith's Literal Translation)




A begotten person is a created being. And all created beings had to have had a beginning.

"begotten

2 of 2

adjective

: brought into existence by or as if by a parent"

 
atpollard:

John 1:1 has three independent clauses. Look at Clause #1. It says: "In the beginning was the Word...."

According to Christendom's Trinity, Jesus Christ aka "the Word" does not have a beginning.


Christendom's Trinity is defined as follows:
"There is but one living and true God, everlasting, without body, parts, or passions; of infinite power, wisdom, and goodness; the maker and preserver of all things both visible and indivisible. And in unity of this Godhead there be three persons, of ONE substance, power, and ETERNITY; the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost."

An eternal person cannot have a beginning.



DEFINITION OF ETERNAL:

"1: having no beginning and no end in time: lasting forever"


That's the first clue that Clause #3 where it says: "and the Word was God," is nothing more than manipulation of scripture by Trinitarian Bible translators.


In the beginning of what?

The beginning of eternity or the beginning of this ball of mud we walk on?

John 1:1 at Clause #1 is with reference to the beginning of creation. Jesus Christ aka "the Word," is a created being. John 1:1 at clause #1 informs the reader that Jesus/the Word had a beginning. This is confirmed at John 1:18 where it describes Jesus/the Word as "begotten."

Go to Post 167 for a fuller explanation where I provided scriptural quotations as well as the definition of the word "begotten" from Merriam-Webster's dictionary. Below is the link to that post.



 
atpollard:

I asked you to quote from a reliable dictionary (along with its weblink) to show us where it defines the word begotten, to quote you: "single of its kind, only."
Why don’t you quote the definition of μονογενὴς (the actual word written by John in 1:18) from YOUR Koine Greek dictionary (since you reject every Koine Greek source I present).

For the record, I also offered “Google Translate” as a source (with the requested link). Google does not define the Greek “μονογενὴς” as you define the English “begotten” either (Is Google also a biased Trinitarian source?)

You are not one of those KJVO people that think God dictated the Bible in English are you?
 
John 1:1 at Clause #1 is with reference to the beginning of creation. Jesus Christ aka "the Word," is a created being. John 1:1 at clause #1 informs the reader that Jesus/the Word had a beginning.
Wow, not only can you not READ what is written in John 1:1 (which does NOT state that the Word had a beginning, it states that the Word “WAS” - already existed - in the beginning) … you are UNWILLING to even listen when multiple people explain your reading comprehension error to you.

Time to shake off the dust and leave the dead to bury the dead. Only God has the ability to grant eyes to see and ears to hear. (Jesus is God, but I am not … so I leave you in His hands).
 
atpollard:

I asked you to quote from a reliable dictionary (along with its weblink) to show us where it defines the word begotten, to quote you: "single of its kind, only."


Why don’t you quote the definition of μονογενὴς (the actual word written by John in 1:18) from YOUR Koine Greek dictionary (since you reject every Koine Greek source I present).

For the record, I also offered “Google Translate” as a source (with the requested link). Google does not define the Greek “μονογενὴς” as you define the English “begotten” either (Is Google also a biased Trinitarian source?)

You are not one of those KJVO people that think God dictated the Bible in English are you?

atpollard:

I don't speak Greek.

Until you can present the definition of the word "begotten" from a commonly accepted English dictionary, your above comments amount to stalling. You're trying to buy time so that you can post additional tripe and confuse the issue.

Merriam-Webster's English dictionary translates the word "begotten" as someone who was created aka someone who had a beginning. Below are a few more English dictionaries where the word "beget" is defined. Focus on the words bolded in red.

FYI: The word "begotten" is the past participle of the word "beget."


beget

Word forms: begets, begetting, begot, begotten
1. verb
To beget something means to cause it to happen or be created.



beget
verb [ T ]

present participle begetting | past tense begot or begat | past participle begotten or begot

old use
to be the father of:
In the Bible it says that Adam begat Cain and Abel.




2. (old use, for example in the Bible) beget somebody to become the father of a child
Isaac begat Jacob.



The fact that the same word beget/begat/begotten is used when speaking about Adam begetting Cain and Abel and Isaac begetting Jacob should make it clear to any honest-hearted person that since the same word "beget/begat/begotten" is used in relationship to Jehovah and Jesus, then it means Jesus was a created being who had a beginning, as was the case with Cain and Abel and Jacob. But Trinitarians go to great trouble trying to argue that the same word beget/begat/begotten has a completely different meaning when it's applied to Jesus Christ.

Trinitarians who show up on these websites to debate DO NOT want to be corrected by scripture. They don't care what the Bible says. It's about them and their love affair with traditions of men, plan and simple.
 
atpollard:

I don't speak Greek.

Until you can present the definition of the word "begotten" from a commonly accepted English dictionary, your above comments amount to stalling. You're trying to buy time so that you can post additional tripe and confuse the issue.

Merriam-Webster's English dictionary translates the word "begotten" as someone who was created aka someone who had a beginning. Below are a few more English dictionaries where the word "beget" is defined. Focus on the words bolded in red.

FYI: The word "begotten" is the past participle of the word "beget."


beget

Word forms: begets, begetting, begot, begotten
1. verb
To beget something means to cause it to happen or be created.



beget
verb [ T ]

present participle begetting | past tense begot or begat | past participle begotten or begot

old use
to be the father of:
In the Bible it says that Adam begat Cain and Abel.




2. (old use, for example in the Bible) beget somebody to become the father of a child
Isaac begat Jacob.



The fact that the same word beget/begat/begotten is used when speaking about Adam begetting Cain and Abel and Isaac begetting Jacob should make it clear to any honest-hearted person that since the same word "beget/begat/begotten" is used in relationship to Jehovah and Jesus, then it means Jesus was a created being who had a beginning, as was the case with Cain and Abel and Jacob. But Trinitarians go to great trouble trying to argue that the same word beget/begat/begotten has a completely different meaning with it's applied to Jesus Christ.

Trinitarians who show up on these websites to debate DO NOT want to be corrected by scripture. They don't care what the Bible says. It's about them and their love affair with traditions of men, plan and simple.
That misses everything in the discussion and foolishly calls an interpreter as "honest-hearted person" for taking a deviant view. No one denies that Jesus only came to physicality around 4BC (or say somewhere from 6BC to 1AD). But the idea of "begotten" may simply be the theological extension of the Greek that means more specifically "one and only." With typical families in scripture, few people had a one and only son. So the discussion can be totally useless when focusing on "begotten" in the translation. That probably is fine from a unitarian point of view.
 
John 1:1 at Clause #1 is with reference to the beginning of creation. Jesus Christ aka "the Word," is a created being. John 1:1 at clause #1 informs the reader that Jesus/the Word had a beginning. This is confirmed at John 1:18 where it describes Jesus/the Word as "begotten."

Wow, not only can you not READ what is written in John 1:1 (which does NOT state that the Word had a beginning, it states that the Word “WAS” - already existed - in the beginning) … you are UNWILLING to even listen when multiple people explain your reading comprehension error to you.

Time to shake off the dust and leave the dead to bury the dead. Only God has the ability to grant eyes to see and ears to hear. (Jesus is God, but I am not … so I leave you in His hands).

Look at the word "beginning," atpollard. The fact that it's used with reference to Jesus/the Word, that, in and of itself, indicates Jesus had a beginning. Here's why? Scripture says almighty God Jehovah DOES NOT have a beginning.


"Before the mountains were born or you brought forth the whole world, from everlasting to everlasting you are God." (Psalm 90:2 -- New International Version)


Not only that, within the same John chapter 1 (the context), at verse 18, it informs the reader that Jesus was "begotten" by Jehovah God.

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." (John 1:18 -- King James Bible

The word "begotten" is with reference to a created being, someone who had a beginning. Go to Post 167 and Post 171 where I posted the definition of beget/begat/begotten.

Post 167


Post 171
 
Look at the word "beginning," atpollard. The fact that it's used with reference to Jesus/the Word, that, in and of itself, indicates Jesus had a beginning. Here's why? Scripture says almighty God Jehovah DOES NOT have a beginning.
Whoa. alter2ego thinks John 1:1 conflicts by denying there is a beginning of creation. That is pretty far from the message of scripture. The problem of the altered interpretation is that the Word was with God and the Word was God. Somehow alter2ego must figure that something that is God has a beginning. I'm not sure where that idea arises.

"Before the mountains were born or you brought forth the whole world, from everlasting to everlasting you are God." (Psalm 90:2 -- New International Version)
The Word was with God and the Word was God but somehow, to alter2ego, that part of God did not exist until some other time. How does that work?
Not only that, within the same John chapter 1 (the context), at verse 18, it informs the reader that Jesus was "begotten" by Jehovah God.

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." (John 1:18 -- King James Bible
The word "begotten" is with reference to a creating being. Go to Post 167 and Post 171 where I posted the definition of beget/begat/begotten.

Does it bother you that the physical body of Jesus was birthed at some point in time? That should be expected rather than just saying Mary was pregnant but that Jesus popped into existence apart from Mary's pregnancy. This could use further explanation by Alter2ego
 
You purposely ignored the context at Colossians chapter 2 so that you could cherry-pick a single word from verse 9 where it merely states that Jesus fully represents Jehovah God in human form. Representing someone else does not turn you into that person. Look at part of the context (surrounding words, verses, and chapters) that you conveniently skipped past.
"Buried with him [Jesus] in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him [Jesus] through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him [Jesus] from the dead." (Colossians 2:12 -- King James Bible)


Next you will be arguing that God raised himself from the dead. Never mind that scripture says God cannot die.
You again skip my question in Post#114 and 115 Alter2Ego. Why?

Read the next verse after Col 2:9, that's the nearest context about Jesus as God, in the nature of God, divine nature, that what "Deity" means.

In Him we will be made complete. This can only be true because Jesus is truly God. If He were not God, we couldn’t be complete in Him. Anything that says we are not complete in Him also takes away from the Deity of Jesus.

Do you believe what verse 10 say? That in Jesus we will be made complete? True or not?

Col 2:9 For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form,
Col 2:10 and
in Him you have been made complete, and He is the head over all rule and authority;

Yes, God cannot die. As Scripture said, Jesus was put to death in the flesh, it did not say Jesus divine nature was put to death. True or not Alter2Ego?

1Pe 3:18 For Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit;
 
Your "resources," such as Bible Lexicons and Strong's Concordance, are books that were NOT written by inspiration of Jehovah God. That's why you need them as a crutch, to bolster your arguments about a 3-prong god.
I also believe that the NWT translation is not inspired by 'יהוה" as it was from F. Franz thoughts. Adding the word "other" in Col 1:16.

Neglecting Bible's original languages, Bible lexicons and Strong Concordance will bolster the belief that NWT was really just from the mind of Frederick Franz.
True or not Alter2Ego?
You, like the average Trinitarian who shows up on online forums to debate--are NOT interested in being corrected by the Bible. I know this from experience because I've been debating Trinitarians at dozens of online forums over the past decade. Because you realize you cannot find support in the Bible for a 3-prong god, you are forced to look elsewhere in places such as Bible Lexicons and Strong's Concordance. Not to mention made-up words such as "eternal begotten," and "godhead," etc.
Again this statement just confirmed that NWT's textual reliance were not from the Bible's original languages.

As Christian I was baptized in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit, as commanded by Christ.
Being a Christian, a follower of Christ, I will worship Him together with the pioneer Christians in Mat 28:17.
But JWs did not follow. True or not Alter2Ego?
When it isn't that, you cherry-pick verses from the Bible and ignore the context of the cherry-picked portions (the surrounding words, verses, and chapters). You ignore context because you realize the context will give the correct meaning to the portion of scripture that you isolated/cherry-picked. And Trinitarians are NOT interested in being corrected by scriptural context. They prefer to remain ignorant of the fact that the Bible doesn't agree with their false claims. This is deliberate behavior and is therefore wicked behavior.
I just read your opinion but no Bible text quoted.
FYI: Strong's Concordance was written by James Strong, a Trinitarian.

"James Strong’s Concordance Greek and Hebrew Lexicon

James Strong (1822-1894), author of Strong’s Concordance, has been elevated to the position of fourth member of the Trinity by many. His corrupt Greek and Hebrew definitions pepper today’s preaching, as if his lexicon was the final and 67th book of the Bible. His liberal definitions are used as quick and weak patches to fill a void in sermons. The space would be better filled by a laborious looking up of all the Bible’s usages of a word."

And you expect me to accept THAT as a credible reference source during Bible discussion? You must be out of your mind.


For the last time: My only authority--as a Christian follower of Jesus Christ--is the Bible. I will not accept any writing such as a Bible Lexicon if it contradicts scripture. Got that?
Be aware, that your argument of negating Bible lexicons will only damage the reliability of NWT.
Then find Bible lexicons authored by JWs Alter2Ego.
Of course I know that your sole authority Bible is NWT. True or not?
 
False, Capbook. That portion of scripture where you used a Trinitarian Bible to partially quote from Hebrews 1:8, where it says: "Your throne, O God," refers to Jehovah the Father. It's a cross-reference from an earlier quotation at Psalm 45:6.
What a misinterpretation, I may elaborate why?
By your interpretation the next verse Psa 45:7 or Heb 1:9 would be;

"Therefore God the Father, your God the Father, and so on..."

Can you realize what you have done to the Word of God Alter2Ego?
Psalm 45:6
"God is your throne forever and ever; The scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of uprightness." (Psalm 45:6 -- New World Translation)
The "throne" is not God Alter2Ego. And where can you find that "forever and ever throne in the New Testament?
Below is Hebrews 1:8 from a Trinitarian Bible that managed to get it right for a change.

"but to the son he saith, "God is thy throne for ever and ever; the sceptre of thy kingdom is a sceptre of equity." (Hebrews 1:8 -- Mace New Testament)
JWs really are fond of using paraphrase translations derived from translators thoughts not from original Bible words.
What a misguided faith, that's the result of those who were not taught to use Bible lexicons, Strong Concordance and "Textual Criticisms" Bibles.

Daniel Mace's New Testament (1729) was not a strict word-for-word (formal equivalence) translation
; it was a significant departure, aiming for what we'd call dynamic equivalence or even paraphrase.https://www.google.com/search?client=firefox-b-e&q=is+mace+new+testament+a+literal+word+for+word+bible+translation


From NAS95, a literal word for word Bible translation render Hebrews 1:8 below;

(NAS95) Heb 1:8 But of the Son He says, "YOUR THRONE, O GOD, IS FOREVER AND EVER, AND THE RIGHTEOUS SCEPTER IS THE SCEPTER OF HIS KINGDOM.
 
Outside sources used by Jehovah's people in their published work support scripture. Compare that to the sources you and other Trinitarians rely on to bolster your claim about a 3-in-1 god such as Bible lexicons and Strong's Concordance. Strong's Concordance was published by Trinitarians. I gave you to link to a source in support of that statement.
The question, why JWs do not have Bible lexicons or just not taught to consult Bible lexicons?
Is GB afraid that the members be enlightened?
Because if you consult Bible lexicons you will find the original Bible words in Hebrew or Greek and know what it means at the time that word was used.

Again, negating Bible lexicons, Strong Concordance and Textual Criticisms Bible is also degrading NWT as only the product of the translators thoughts not from original Bible words.
Hope you can digest the logic Alter2Ego.
 
The name Jehovah is the Latinized version of the Tetragrammaton, true. But what has that to do with the topic of this thread?
Of course it is important.
Jesus taught us to pray, Our Father, who is in heaven, Hallowed be Your name.

What name shall we hallowed? The original or the Latinized?
You are trying to change the goal post. It's called stalling. What are you running from? Oh, now I remember. You're running from the fact that Christendom's 3-in-1 god is pagan in origin and that you--as a Trinitarian--are disobeying Almighty Jehovah God who made it clear that he is singular.
Yes, the Tetragrammaton is one.

Deu 6:4 “Hear, O Yisra’ěl: יהוה our Elohim, יהוה is one!

What I read above are just your opinion, quote a Bible text and we'll proceed.
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah." (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- New World Translation)
Because of NWT, you are misguided.

Deu 6:4 “Hear, O Yisra’ěl: יהוה our Elohim, יהוה is one!

"Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah:" (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- American Standard Version)


"Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one
Jehovah;" (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- Young's Literal Translation)


"Hear, Israel; Jehovah our God is one
Jehovah." (Deuteronomy 6:4 -- Smith's Literal Translation


"Hear, Israel: LORD
JEHOVAH our God, LORD JEHOVAH is one:" (Deuteronomy 6:4 --Peshitta Holy Bible Translated"


Look at the above. In addition to the New World Translation (published by Jehovah's people) even some of the Trinitarian Bible translators had the decency to include the most commonly accepted English translation of the Divine name in small portions of their Bibles. And you're making an issue of Jehovah's Witnesses using it? You should be ashamed for not doing likewise!
Which do you think is the original personal name of the Father Alter2Ego?
Just pick one, this one יהוה or the one your church used?
 
False, Capbook. That portion of scripture where you used a Trinitarian Bible to partially quote from Hebrews 1:8, where it says: "Your throne, O God," refers to Jehovah the Father. It's a cross-reference from an earlier quotation at Psalm 45:6.

Psalm 45:6

"God is your throne forever and ever; The scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of uprightness." (Psalm 45:6 -- New World Translation)


Below is Hebrews 1:8 from a Trinitarian Bible that managed to get it right for a change.

"but to the son he saith, "God is thy throne for ever and ever; the sceptre of thy kingdom is a sceptre of equity." (Hebrews 1:8 -- Mace New Testament)
Young lady.

You keep making the same charges, but you give no alternatives

To begin with the Trinity became popular ... according to SA

The term "Trinity" was first used by the early Christian theologian Tertullian in the late 2nd to early 3rd century CE to describe the concept of one God in three persons: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. However, the formal doctrine was developed and clarified at the First Council of Nicaea in 325 CE.

But Tertulian never wrote a bible. He never wrote a bokk or chapter or was ever quote in the bible.

So every bible written before AD325 was NOT a Trinitarian bible.
Masoretic Text (MT)
The earliest copies of the Hebrew Bible were written without vowels or accents, as written Hebrew did not represent vowels until the Middle Ages. To preserve traditional spoken readings, starting in the fifth century C.E., a group of Jewish scribes known as the Masoretes carefully selected, copied, and annotated biblical scrolls, adding vowels and accents to the ancient Hebrew consonants in the process. Though the Masoretic scribes added these vowels to the ancient text long after it had been written, they were likely preserving traditional vocalizations that dated to much earlier times. The Masoretes produced several different systems of vocalization (writing in vowels) between 500 and 700 C.E.
Until the last few decades, most biblical scholars believed that the Masoretic biblical texts were, with some exceptions, the best witnesses to the most ancient Hebrew text of the Hebrew Bible (what Christians sometimes call the Old Testament).
Recent discoveries from the Dead Sea Scrolls, however, suggest that there were several different versions of many biblical books in the Second Temple period. Some of these versions differed only slightly from each other, but some versions were very different. After the destruction of Jerusalem and its temple by the Romans in 70 C.E., Jewish groups dispersed across the ancient world, preserving these versions of the Hebrew Scriptures in their communities. One of these groups preserved the texts that would later become the Masoretic Text. Others are preserved in versions such as the Septuagint, the earliest Greek translation.
In the 10th century C.E., the ben Asher scribal family of Tiberias produced a manuscript of the Hebrew Bible that Maimonides, a famous Jewish scholar, declared to be the best known version of the sacred text. Soon after, the Tiberian Masoretic text and its particular version of vowels and annotations became the standard, authoritative text of the Hebrew Bible for rabbinic Judaism. The most important Masoretic medieval manuscripts are the Aleppo Codex, which dates to the 10th century C.E., and the Leningrad Codex, which dates to 1009 C.E.
The Masoretic Text is the version held as authoritative and used liturgically in most synagogues today. The Catholic Church since the time of Jerome (fourth century C.E.) and most Protestant Christian churches use this version as their source text for modern translations.
Old Greek (OG) or Septuagint
The earliest translation of the Hebrew Bible is the Old Greek (OG), the translation made in Alexandria, Egypt, for the use of the Greek-speaking Jewish community there. At first, just the Torah was translated, in the third century B.C.E.; the rest of the biblical books were translated later. The whole Hebrew Bible was likely translated into ancient Greek by the middle of the second century B.C.E.
Scholars think that many OG translators worked from early Hebrew versions of biblical books that were quite different from those versions that became the MT. As a result, some biblical books, such as Daniel, Jeremiah, and Job, are longer or shorter in the OG version of the Bible than they are in the MT.
We now know from discoveries in the Dead Sea region that these alternate Hebrew versions were circulated alongside the versions that became the MT. It is not clear that one Hebrew version was preferred over the others. In any event, the OG translators sometimes chose versions very similar to those later chosen for the MT version, and other times the translators chose versions that were very different.
At the time the Bible was translated into Greek, there was no MT or any official or authorized Bible in existence. There were merely multiple editions of many scrolls of various perceived levels of sacredness. In fact, it seems that there wasn’t an official project to translate “the Bible” into ancient Greek; instead, many different Greek-speaking Jews in various times and places simply translated their favorite books into ancient Greek. Some of these books were later chosen to be included in the Bible, and some were not. It was only many centuries later that people began to choose the best of these Greek translations and to copy them all together as if they were one book. So, it can be said that the Bible was translated in its entirety before there even was a Bible!
Eventually, early Christians adopted the OG as their preferred version of the Hebrew Bible. Most Jews in Greek-speaking lands returned to using the Hebrew version that would later become the MT. Christians then added bits and pieces to what had already been added by Jewish editors and translators, and the resulting text used in early Christian liturgy (and still used by Eastern Orthodox Churches) is called the Septuagint.
Christians then translated the Greek version into many other languages, such as Latin (the Old Latin version, completed by the third century C.E.), African languages such as Coptic (third century C.E.), Asian languages such as Armenian (circa fifth century C.E.), and Arabic (ninth century C.E.).
Aramaic
Because the Jews in Palestine spoke mostly Aramaic by the time the biblical books were coming into their final forms, translations were required even while the finishing touches were being put on the texts. For example, some parts of the Aramaic translation of the Torah, called Targum Onqelos, probably go back as far as 100 B.C.E. Others, such as Targum Psalms, date from as late as 600 C.E. These Aramaic translations are usually called targums, the Aramaic word for “translation.” Some targums are more literal, and others are more expansive and creative. Some biblical books have a number of different targums made from them, whereas for others we can only find one.
Syriac
The Syriac language was spoken by Jews in northern Syria; they translated their Bible into Syriac at various points in the second century C.E. Several translators worked on this project, so the quality and style of translation varies. The Peshitta (which means “simple,” that is, a plain translation without textual comments) was prepared for the use of Jews. Later, Syriac-speaking Christians adopted the Peshitta and added a Syriac version of the New Testament, although the far-Eastern Christian churches seemed not to include several New Testament letters or the book of Revelation.
In the second century C.E., a Christian named Tatian decided to harmonize all four canonical Greek Gospels and, at the same time, translate them into Syriac. Because the four Gospels seem to exhibit some discrepancies, Tatian rewrote them so that they would not conflict. Although Tatian’s harmonization was very popular in the East until the fifth century C.E., other early Christian interpreters such as Irenaeus urged Christians to maintain all four (separate) canonical Gospels. The tradition of four separate Gospels continues in almost all Christian churches to this day.
The New Testament
By the end of the first and the beginning of the second century C.E., various Gospels, narratives, letters, and apocalyptic writings, all written in a broadly used dialect of Greek named koine, or “common,” were being used by various Christian communities.
Selection among these sacred texts, and from the Hebrew Bible, for public reading in Christian worship probably began the process of canonization of Christian writings.
When disputes broke out about beliefs or traditions, the canonical status of the various Christian writings became a touchstone in the debates.
Official lists of books in or out of the canon only began to appear in the fourth century C.E., as a result of particular theological disputes, usually about the divinity of Jesus or the Trinity. However, Christian canon lists remained fluid through the seventh century; during this time, books such as the Shepherd of Hermas or the forged Epistle to the Laodiceans could be found in certain Christian Bibles.
Overall, by the end of the fourth century C.E. there was general agreement about which books should have scriptural status. Although early Christians wrote quite a few letters and books, only a few became widely accepted. For a work to be considered sacred in the fourth century and beyond, it seems that it had to claim apostolic authority: the work had to be written or authorized by one of the earliest Christian leaders, especially Paul and the twelve apostles. Apostolic authority required that the books be consistent with the teachings about Jesus and the Trinity that were found in other accepted books and that were current in fourth-century Christianity. As a result, books such as the Gospel of Peter were rejected from most Christian canon lists, and some of the writings deemed noncanonical were lost and only rediscovered in the 19th and 20th centuries.
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What is true is this: no complete New Testament codex survives from before AD 325.
What is not true is that the New Testament was not written, copied, or widely used before then.


Here’s the critical distinction (and this is where the confusion usually happens):




1. The New Testament was written​


Most scholars—across theological lines—date the NT writings roughly to:


  • AD 50–70 → Paul’s letters
  • AD 60–90 → Gospels & Acts
  • AD 60–95 → General Epistles & Revelation

By the end of the 1st century, the NT documents already existed as individual writings.




2. We have​


Just not complete ones.


Examples (approximate dates):


  • 𝔓52 (Rylands fragment, John 18) → c. 125–150
  • 𝔓66 (most of John) → c. 200
  • 𝔓75 (Luke & John) → c. 175–225
  • 𝔓46 (Pauline epistles) → c. 175–225

These predate Nicaea (325) by over a century and show a stable textual tradition already in place.




3. What​


Format, not content.


Before 325:


  • NT books circulated as individual scrolls or small codices
  • Churches owned partial collections

After 325:


  • We begin seeing large, single-volume codices (e.g., Sinaiticus, Vaticanus)
  • Christianity is legalized, resources increase
  • Book production becomes centralized and standardized

This is a technological and economic shift, not a theological invention.




4. Council of Nicaea did​


  • Nicaea (325) addressed Christology (Arian controversy)
  • It did not decide the NT canon
  • NT books were already being quoted as Scripture by:
    • Ignatius (c. 110)
    • Polycarp (c. 110–135)
    • Irenaeus (c. 180)



Bottom line (clean and precise):​


The New Testament was written in the 1st century, copied and circulated in fragments and collections long before AD 325, but the earliest surviving complete New Testament codices date to the mid-4th century.

So since all translations had their origins from these above... cut the Trinitatians bible stuff because that only came around long after those that were used to make a book you can read.

AND A SIDE BY SIDE COMPARISON OF MORE CURRENT TEXTS SHOW THAT THEY READ PRETTY MUCH THE SAME.. just word some things differently...

So cut it out.

Even the NWT is not so much different when except for a word change or so hither and yon... Pardon me... I should say hear and there... because I would not want to be misunderstood..... like you misunderstand the words inspired from God on high
 
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