Please answer my question below by directly referencing the 2 verses I quoted:
"the old things passed away; behold, new things have come" Notice the purposeful interchange of verb tenses.
"old things passed away"
This is AORIST TENSE in the INDICATIVE MOOD often refers to a completed act in past time. This refers to conversion.
"new things have come"
This is PERFECT TENSE which refers to a past completed act with abiding results. This refers to discipleship.
There is a Greek manuscript variant which reflects "all things" in the final clause (i.e., MS D2). This type of clarifying addition is common for the later scribes. The oldest Greek manuscripts (i.e., MSS P46, א, B, C, D*, F, G) end with kaina. The UBS4 gives this reading an "A" rating (certain).
This concept of "new" is part of OT terminology for the eschaton. The OT prophets spoke of this new age.
"new things" (cf. Isa. 42:9; 43:19; Jer. 31:22)
"new covenant" (cf. Jer. 31:31-34)
"new heart, new spirit" (Ezek. 11:19; 18:31; 36:26)
"new name" (cf. Isa. 62:2; 56:5; 65:15)
"new song" (cf. Ps. 96:1; Isa. 42:10)
"new heavens and new earth" (cf. Isa. 65:17; 66:22)
This eschatological newness had come in Jesus, but the old was still present. The new has not been fully consummated. The overlapping of the Jewish "two ages" by Jesus' two comings was unforseen by OT prophets though they did depict the Messiah in lowly servant terms as well as victorious royal terms.
5:18 "Now all these things are from God" It is God's love that sent the Son into the world (cf. John 3:16). Salvation is totally from God ,
but believers must respond and continue to respond to the new covenant in repentance, faith, obedience, and perseverance.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
"But now" There is a contrast between the hopeless past of the Gentiles, Eph. 2:11-12, and their great hope in the gospel, Eph. 2:13-22.
"you who formerly were far off have been brought near" This same concept is repeated in Eph. 2:17, where Isa. 57:19 is quoted. In Isaiah this text referred to Jewish exiles but here in Ephesians it refers to Gentiles. This is one example of Paul's typological use of OT passages. The NT Apostles have universalized the OT hope. As the exiled Jews were apart from God, so too, the Gentiles were alienated from God.
"by the blood of Christ." This referred to the vicarious, substitutionary atonement of Christ (cf. Eph. 1:7; Rom. 3:25; 5:6-10; 2 Cor. 5:21; Col. 1:20; Heb. 9:14,28; 1 Pet. 1:19; Rev. 1:5). God's family is no longer national, but spiritual (cf. Rom. 2:28-29; 4:16-25).
The blood of Christ was a sacrificial metaphor (cf. Leviticus 1-2) for the death of the Messiah (cf. TEV). John the Baptist said of Jesus, "Behold, the lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world" (cf. John 1:29). Jesus came to die (cf. Gen. 3:15; Isa. 53; Mark 10:45).
It also was a way to assert the true humanity of Jesus, (cf. Eph. 2:15) which the Gnostics denied.
2:14 This verse has three verbals. The first is a present indicative. Jesus continues to be and to provide our peace. The second and third are aorist active participles ("made both one" and "broke down the barrier"); all that is necessary has been accomplished to unite Jews and Gentiles into one new entity (the church).
Peace between Jew and Gentile is the focus of this literary unit, Eph. 2:11-3:13. This was the mystery of the gospel hidden in ages past. The term "peace" refers to
1. peace between God and mankind (cf. John 14:27; 16:33; Rom. 5:1-11; Phil. 4:7,9)
2. peace between Jew and Gentile, Eph. 2:14, 15, 17 (cf. Gal. 3:28; Col. 3:11)
I stand by my statement brother
J.