The doctrine of imputation teaches that in the doctrine of justification, God imputes or accredits the righteousness and suffering of Jesus to those who are in him and, conversely, imputes the sins of those redeemed to Christ.
Good, Clay.
Now here's the Scripture:
KJV 21 For
he hath made him [
to be]
sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. 2 Cor 5:21.
(italics not in original text)
YLT 21for him who did not know sin, in our behalf
He did make sin, that we may become the righteousness of God in him. 2 Co 5:21.
Did God
make Him sin for us or merely place our sins
on Him?
We have a sin nature because of Adam, but the guilt of sin is not accredited to us Until we actually sin. The guilt in the order of nature and fact precedes the spiritual death which is its penal consequent.
Doesn't the Law show us
we are sinners or does it say to you that we
can sin?
I ask because my reading of the Scripture presents to me that the Law shows us
we are sinners, not that we
can sin.
7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.
9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.
10 And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be unto death.
11 For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it slew me.
Rom. 7:7–11.
vs. 7 Paul describes that through the existence of the Law he'd
not known sin. I don't see an act of sin, but the knowledge of sinfulness is his point.
vs. 8 the word "concupiscence" means "
longing" [Strong's]. I still don't see an act of sin. As a matter of fact, Paul's thought is joined to what he says next: "
for without the Law sin was dead."
It appears to me he is saying if there's no law there's no sin. Again, the existence of the Law is the existence of sin, not the act of sin.
vs. 9 Paul says, "
when the Commandment came, sin revived, and I died." Again, I still see him saying the existence of the Law/Commandment revealed that he was a sinner, not that an act of sin made him a sinner.
vs. 10 The definition of sin is death (although the Greek word "
harmatia" is defined literally as "
missing the mark" which is descriptive of actual
being dead [which is the result] as a sinner before a Sinless God), In other words "
missing the mark" (and the "
mark" being the standard of God's person by which all is judged) is the cause of one's death. It also means "death is sin." Do you agree?
vs. 11 Again, in other words Paul says the existence of the Law/ Command slew/killed him. I see no
act of sin in his thought.
Little children and babies don't understand these things and are not held accountable for them. If they die God's grace saves them.
As above, if Christ is
made sin [for us] who knew no sin (because His nature as God's Son is sinless), and we are imputed His righteousness doesn't that confirm that Christ died for our sin nature and not the acts of our sin nature?
We are imputed His righteousness. He is imputed our sin nature. A nature-swap. Surely, He didn't die for our acts of sin, or the passage would read as follows:
For he hath made him [
to be] (the acts of) sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteous (acts) of God in him.
If we
do have a sin nature and Christ only died for our
acts of sin, then the sin nature from which the acts of sin originate remains and we enter glory with an unatoned sin nature. This can't be right.
As I said, a nature-swap. He is imputed our sin nature and we are imputed His righteous nature. Peter make such a statement:
4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be
partakers of the divine nature... 2 Peter 1:4.
So, can you agree it's a nature-swap that is described in 2 Cor. 5:21?
Now, let's go to the Garden. If the existence of the Law/Command slew/kills us, and it is our sin nature by which is our death, and the Law/Command of God "
thou shalt not eat of it" [the Tree], can it also be said as coming from Adam:
ADAM: "What shall
say then? Is the law/command sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law/command: for I had not known disobedience, except the law/command had said, thou shalt not eat of it." Can Paul's words be applied to Adam?
Paul said the existence of the Law/Command slew us. There is no "act" of sin explained here.
Without the Law/Command there is no sin. It is only through the existence of a Law/Command whereby we die.
And since it is true that "wickedness proceedeth from the wicked" (1 Sam. 24:13) is the same as saying sin comes from sinners? Doesn't this prove we sin because we are sinners and not we are sinners because we sin?
So, if we are conceived through sperm and egg as the beginning of our sin nature in growth, and we die because there is the existence of a Law/Command, and Christ died for our sin nature, where in the creation of man did the sin nature come from if we sin because we are sinners and not we are sinners because we sin (considering the embryo in a woman's womb.) The question now becomes if we are conceived in the womb with a sin nature and Christ performed a nature-swap, why does atonement different in application to an adult against a baby in the womb? Two forms of atonement? One applying to all babies in the womb with a sin nature against an adult with a sin nature that must rely on His name being in the book of life of the lamb slain.
There is election to be considered as well in this equation, yes?
I suppose that if all babies that die in the womb or shortly after birth go to God then the advantage is to die as a baby to enter God's kingdom.
But as I explained there are two atonements. One for adult in which election is necessary to go to heaven, and one in which election is assured as a baby who dies and goes to heaven.
Are you following me?