Peterlag
Active Member
John 1:1,14 is as clear as it gets. Thomas' "My Lord and my God." is also clear. Paul's "looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus, who gave Himself for us to redeem us ..." Titus 2:13 is crystal clear. Hebrews 1 is clear. The fact that Jesus pre-existed and that He even encourages people to worship Him - "if these remain silent, even the rocks would cry out." are plain as day.Your logic means nothing to me. I look for Scripture that teaches Jesus is God and there's none. Even with this Thomas holds no water. What Hebrew word did Thomas use? It was not YHWH, for "my YHWH" never appears in all of scripture. The translators who translated the Gospels from Hebrew to Greek could not have been Jews for they made not difference in translating both YHWH and Elohim into "theos". Thomas obviously said "my Elohim" which means "my mighty one".
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John 1:14
The "Word" is the wisdom, plan or purpose of God and the Word became flesh as Jesus Christ. Thus, Jesus Christ was the Word in the flesh, which is shortened to the Word for ease of speaking. Scripture is also the Word in writing. Everyone agrees that the Word in writing had a beginning. So did the Word in the flesh. In fact, the Greek text of Matthew 1:18 says that very clearly: "Now the beginning of Jesus Christ was in this manner..." The modern Greek texts all read "beginning" in Matthew 1:18. Birth is considered an acceptable translation since the beginning of some things is birth, and so most translations read birth. Nevertheless, the proper understanding of Matthew 1:18 is the beginning of Jesus Christ. In the beginning God had a plan, a purpose, which became flesh when Jesus was conceived.