The Trinity and all of its supporting doctrines are all circular in reasoning

<snip> He was indeed fully human, fully like mankind in every way. But that does not stop Him from being fully God as well. <snip>
I know this isn't addressed to me but I had to respond ---- so feel free to just read it and roll along - no response needed!

Well, I don't know about you but as for ME, THIS HUMAN - I am not fully human AND fully God --- I actually know of no human being that can qualify for being fully human AND fully God so apparently since you claim that Jesus is fully human AND fully God then he is nothing like us in every way and scripture is wrong??????
 
Well, I don't know about you but as for ME, THIS HUMAN - I am not fully human AND fully God ---
Of course you are not fully human and fully God. You were never God to begin with.
I actually know of no human being that can qualify for being fully human AND fully God
That is what makes Jesus unique.
so apparently since you claim that Jesus is fully human AND fully God then he is nothing like us in every way and scripture is wrong??????
Being fully God did not make Him any less human.
Do you have a spirit? Of course you do.
Does the fact that you have a spirit make you less human? No.

Jesus had a spirit too. But His spirit was not the spirit of a fallen human. It was the Spirit of the Living God, who Created everything that was made, then emptied Himself of all ambition, the independent use of His power, knowledge, glory, etc., and came to Earth as a man.
 
Of course you are not fully human and fully God. You were never God to begin with.

That is what makes Jesus unique.

Being fully God did not make Him any less human.
Do you have a spirit? Of course you do.
Does the fact that you have a spirit make you less human? No.

Jesus had a spirit too. But His spirit was not the spirit of a fallen human. It was the Spirit of the Living God, who Created everything that was made, then emptied Himself of all ambition, the independent use of His power, knowledge, glory, etc., and came to Earth as a man.
:ROFLMAO: You are the only person I know that can break up a paragraph which contains within it's context one subject and respond to each sentence as though they all meant something different!

My point......no human being is fully human and fully God therefore IF Jesus is fully human and fully God - he is NOT made like his brothers in every respect. It was as simple as that.
 
:ROFLMAO: You are the only person I know that can break up a paragraph which contains within it's context one subject and respond to each sentence as though they all meant something different!

My point......no human being is fully human and fully God therefore IF Jesus is fully human and fully God - he is NOT made like his brothers in every respect. It was as simple as that.
I love how this example of hyperliteralism overtaking the message shared by Hebrews. The reason of becoming like humans in every respect first indicates that his preexistence was not human. But the hyperliteralist wants to say that a normal human has to be described as being a normal human to clarify an otherwise unidentified misconception that the Jews would have.
 
My point......no human being is fully human and fully God therefore IF Jesus is fully human and fully God - he is NOT made like his brothers in every respect.
The fact that you can write that sentence demonstrates and proves that you either do not know Scripture (while you have proven that you do), or you ignore what Scripture says and willfully defy God.

I wash my hands of you.
 
Question: is Jesus, the Holy Spirit and the Father actually separate beings?

From looking at scripture, they operate as full expressions of the one being, God.

Look at Revelation.. its Jesus's words, yet also the Spirit's ..and Jesus is given Alpha and Omega terms you see with the Father.

I see that as not separate beings, that are somehow 'God' in brackets..but the one being , God..in three expressions, substances, persons.
 
I love how this example of hyperliteralism overtaking the message shared by Hebrews. The reason of becoming like humans in every respect first indicates that his preexistence was not human. But the hyperliteralist wants to say that a normal human has to be described as being a normal human to clarify an otherwise unidentified misconception that the Jews would have.
I'll be a hyperlisterist again-----Jesus didn't become like humans he was made like his brothers, i.e. human beings in every respect. Yeah, a normal human being is usually described as being a normal human being --- not as unidentified misconception.

Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people........ For every high priest chosen from among men is appointed to act on behalf of men in relation to God, to offer gifts and sacrifices for sins.
 
I know this isn't addressed to me but I had to respond ---- so feel free to just read it and roll along - no response needed!

Well, I don't know about you but as for ME, THIS HUMAN - I am not fully human AND fully God --- I actually know of no human being that can qualify for being fully human AND fully God so apparently since you claim that Jesus is fully human AND fully God then he is nothing like us in every way and scripture is wrong??????
You did not have to interact with me in the first place.
<snip>
My point......no human being is fully human and fully God therefore IF Jesus is fully human and fully God - he is NOT made like his brothers in every respect. It was as simple as that.
The fact that you can write that sentence demonstrates and proves that you either do not know Scripture (while you have proven that you do), or you ignore what Scripture says and willfully defy God.

I wash my hands of you.
What did I say that made you so angry with me? 🤷‍♀️

I said right off the bat, no response needed. Just put me on ignore.
 
I'll be a hyperlisterist again-----Jesus didn't become like humans he was made like his brothers, i.e. human beings in every respect. Yeah, a normal human being is usually described as being a normal human being --- not as unidentified misconception.

Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people........ For every high priest chosen from among men is appointed to act on behalf of men in relation to God, to offer gifts and sacrifices for sins.
uh. to be made like them he would have to have different from his brothers. You missed it again that he would have to be different beforehand to become like them at some point in time. Otherwise, the verse is totally meaningless. But that is okay for hyperliteralists as long as they get their desired interpretation
 
uh. to be made like them he would have to have different from his brothers. You missed it again that he would have to be different beforehand to become like them at some point in time. Otherwise, the verse is totally meaningless. But that is okay for hyperliteralists as long as they get their desired interpretation
Jesus was made like his brothers, his brothers are human beings......Jesus is our high priest chosen from among men, human beings so I would say Jesus is a human being. He was born a human being, grew up a human being, died as a human being and was raised from the dead and became a life giving spirit.

Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people........ For every high priest chosen from among men is appointed to act on behalf of men in relation to God, to offer gifts and sacrifices for sins.

The verse means a lot to me ---- I don't see it as Jesus was something else and became something else.
 
Jesus was made like his brothers, his brothers are human beings......Jesus is our high priest chosen from among men, human beings so I would say Jesus is a human being. He was born a human being, grew up a human being, died as a human being and was raised from the dead and became a life giving spirit.

Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people........ For every high priest chosen from among men is appointed to act on behalf of men in relation to God, to offer gifts and sacrifices for sins.

The verse means a lot to me ---- I don't see it as Jesus was something else and became something else.
sure. you like it because of your misreading it of into nonsensical unitarian support. You simply repeated the text that is sort of a later look at the preexistent one who became Jesus in full humanity and turn it into denial of that fact. Repeating the same error does not make it right.
 
are you separated from your wife and children, who are from you, and not creatures ? (horrible vicious kjv corruption)

Why would God be separate from His feminine spirit, His son, and all His sons and daughters led by Christ?
So anyone who is a son or daughter of God is also God or just the one you cherry picked? I don't think people should be able to have their cake and eat it too in this case.
 
Can a thing create itself? No. It is completely impossible for something to make itself out of nothing. What does John 1:3 say? It says that the Logos of God (which John 1:1 says IS God) was responsible for creating EVERYTHING that was created. That means that the Logos of God CANNOT be a created thing. Then John 1:14 and following tells us that the Logos of God took on flesh and became a man; the man we know as Jesus.
You're going to need to read what you're talking about closer before repeatedly building upon error.

First off, it doesn't say that the Word is the Creator. Observe in John 1:1-3 the vocabulary and grammar being used.

1. The Word is not the same God the Word is with. Most trinitarians say this is the Father and Son.
2. The God the Word is with the last God mentioned in John 1:2
3. John 1:3 says "All things were made through him" with "him" referring back to the previously mentioned God.
4. The previously mentioned God is not the Word, therefore all things were not made through the Word.
5. This is basic reading comprehension, elementary level pronoun-antecedent agreement,.

John 1
1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was in the beginning with God. 3All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.
These are immutable facts, and they prove that Jesus is the Logos of God, which makes Jesus God.
You have lost your point about the Word being Creator. You're going to need to go back to the drawing board and somehow find a way to change it, but I will let you know ahead of time, you won't be allowed to do if you try.
You have yet to point out an error of mine. You have demonstrated your lack of belief of the Truth.
You demonstrate severe and permeating ignorance built upon lies.

The three are equal in power, glory, purpose, will. But the Son has willingly subjected Himself to the will of the Father, and He gave up the independent use of His power, His knowledge, His glory for the time that He was on Earth as a human.
Not they are not equal in power. Are you aware that Jesus had no ability to do miracles until God empowered him? Jesus isn't God, rather Jesus is a man empowered by God, and God was with Jesus, not that God is Jesus:

Acts 10
37you yourselves know what happened throughout all Judea, beginning from Galilee after the baptism that John proclaimed: 38how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power. He went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with him.


Because Scripture says that He was. As pointed out above, Jesus is the Logos of God which was responsible for creating EVERYTHING that was made, which means that He CANNOT be a created being (and ONLY God is eternal). Jesus claimed to be God in passages like John 8:58, John 10:30, 33, Rev 21:6, Rev 22:12-13. Further, there are numerous places in Scripture where Jesus is said to be God, like Tit 2:13, John 20:28, Heb 1:8, Isa 9:6, 1 John 5:20, and others.
You must be misunderstanding those since Jesus denied being God in Mark 10:18, Jesus proclaimed the Father is the true God alone in John 17:3, Paul confirmed the only God for us is the Father in 1 Cor 8:6 and in 1 Cor 8:4 Paul defined the Shema as the Father only. There is 1 Timothy 2:5 that indicates Jesus is not the same party as God, but rather a mediator. There is John 14:1 in which Jesus proved that belief in God is not the same thing as belief in himself. John only taught people to worship the Father in John 4:23,24, and only ever taught people to pray to the Father in Matt 6:6,9. No one every said Jesus participated in his own resurrection in all of Scripture. There are numerous examples of Jesus not being omniscient, not being omnipresent, not being omnipotent, proving that he lacks the divine attributes that the Father has. Paul opened all of his letters proclaiming the Father is the God of Jesus, meaning that Jesus is a man with a God just like everyone else. Furthermore, Jesus is not inherently immortal and required a Savior to save him just like we all do according to Hebrews 5:7. Jesus is never called eternal in the Bible and there are no examples of him existing prior to his birth. With all of that in mind, your story is sheer fiction; a biblical impossibility. To tie it all together, no one ever defined God as a trinity anywhere in the Bible. Your version of God is an idol, a fake god, impotent and mute. I highly recommend you repent of your idolatry.
John 1:14 tells us that the Logos of God (which is God (John 1:1)) left Heaven, took on flesh, and became a man we know as Jesus. John 17:5 tells us that Jesus was with God before Creation, and had the same glory as God at that time.
Read John 1:1-3 again following what was just revealed to you above. Also John 17:5 doesn't say in which way Jesus pre-existed. There are no examples of him in the Old Testament for you to cite to support your narrative. Your point ends right there at a dead end with no further examples to source.
Phil 26:-8 tells us that Jesus started in the same nature as the Father, but emptied Himself and took on flesh.
It mentions no such thing. Begin with Philippians 2:5 in which Paul was telling the church to have the same mind as Jesus. After that, Paul told them how to have the mind of Jesus. It would be nonsense if Jesus were God that Paul was teaching people how to have the mind of God.
1 John 4:2 tells us that to deny that Jesus came in the flesh (was incarnate God) is to deny God and be Antichrist.
This verse mentions no such thing. You are making the error of importing your personal beliefs into the verse and projecting a pre-existence where none is mentioned. "Coming in the flesh" refers to being there in person, nothing more, and it is used of others in the Bible as well. Also, Meriam-Webster defines "in the flesh" as in person and alive https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/in the flesh

There are no sources who agree with you aside from trinitarian propagandists.
If you believe that then you are not reading Scripture properly. I demonstrated in each case how each of those passages states that Jesus is God.
You're going to have a very hard time changing the Biblical narrative. You will find your error was exposed already.

Sure there are others who say, "I am ..." all through Scripture. It is not the fact that Jesus said, "I am ..." that makes Him God. It is the fact that He said, "I am." Period. He didn't say He was (something). He said, "I AM", I EXIST. Jesus also said, "I am the light". That makes Him God, not because of the "I am" statement, but because God is light (1 John 1:5) and if Jesus is "the light" then He is God.
You don't know enough about Scripture to be telling anyone what it says. Your "God is light" and "Jesus is light" example is false because Jesus said believers are the light as well in Matt 5:14 "You are the light of the world."

Your error is that you don't know where the light comes from. We will go back to John 1 again, to verse 9, which says "The true Light, who gives light to everyone, was coming into the world."

Following the chronology of John 1, the true Light was coming into the world after Jesus was already a man and had been alive about 30 years at that point. John 1:9 proves that Jesus is a man who received light just as others received light.
No, there is no one other than Jesus that is one with the Father. We, the saints, will become one with the Father after the Resurrection, but we are not one with Him now.
Yes there is.

John 17
21that all of them may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I am in You. May they also be in Us, so that the world may believe that You sent Me.
22I have given them the glory You gave Me, so that they may be one as We are one—

1 Corinthians 6
17But he who unites himself with the Lord is one with Him in spirit.
Scripture doesn't say that Jesus was in the beginning and the end. It says He IS the beginning and the end. He is the source of everything that is. Everything is held together and has its existence because of Him.
Alpha and omega, beginning and end, first and last, all essentially mean the same things. Let me ask you to help clear up your misunderstandings. How does the First and Last die if the First and Last is God?

Revelation 1
17When I saw Him, I fell at His feet like a dead man. But He placed His right hand on me and said, “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last, 18the Living One. I was dead, and behold, now I am alive forever and ever! And I hold the keys of Death and of Hades.
He did not deny equality with God. He said that the Father is greater than He. That is a term of submission, meaning that He has subjected His own will to the will of the Father. It does not mean that the Father is more powerful than Jesus, or that Jesus is not God.
Yes he denied equality with God. The Father is greater than Jesus, since greater, they are not equal. You can't change it.
Again, you demonstrate your lack of discernment. Daniel 7 shows that Jesus is indeed God. No, He is not on the Throne in that prophecy, but it is not the throne that makes God God. It is God that makes the throne. Jesus stepped down from the Throne (His rightful place), and took on the form of a servant (as a man), and was submissive to the Father even unto the death of His body (His spirit never ceased to be (1 Pet 3:19)).
Now that Daniel 7 has proven that Jesus isn't the one on the throne nor inherently possessed sovereignty over the kingdom, we know that someone with greater authority than Jesus gave it to him, which in the context of Daniel 7 we know is the ancient of days. Means Jesus isn't God.
He was indeed fully human, fully like mankind in every way. But that does not stop Him from being fully God as well.
Jesus proved that Jesus isn't God.
 
You're going to need to read what you're talking about closer before repeatedly building upon error.

First off, it doesn't say that the Word is the Creator. Observe in John 1:1-3 the vocabulary and grammar being used.

1. The Word is not the same God the Word is with. Most trinitarians say this is the Father and Son.
Yes, this is speaking of the Father and Son (Jesus). The Word (Jesus) is with the God (the Father), and is God (equal to and united with the Father).
2. The God the Word is with the last God mentioned in John 1:2
3. John 1:3 says "All things were made through him" with "him" referring back to the previously mentioned God.
Wrong. All of John 1:1-3 is speaking about the Word. God there is the object with which the Word is. In verse 3, Him is referring to the Word still.
4. The previously mentioned God is not the Word, therefore all things were not made through the Word.
Wrong again. The Word is still the subject of the whole paragraph, and it is the Word through which everything is made. And this is paralleled and restated in Col 1:16-17, and Heb 1:2.
5. This is basic reading comprehension, elementary level pronoun-antecedent agreement,.
Agreed. Which means you need to go back to school and learn how to follow pronoun-antecedent agreement again.
John 1
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (not the Word), and the Word was God (was fully equal to and united with God). 2 He (the Word) was in the beginning with God (not the Word). 3 All things were made through him (the Word), and without him (the Word) was not any thing made that was made.

You have lost your point about the Word being Creator. You're going to need to go back to the drawing board and somehow find a way to change it, but I will let you know ahead of time, you won't be allowed to do if you try.
No need. You have failed to show that the Word is not the Creator.
Not they are not equal in power. Are you aware that Jesus had no ability to do miracles until God empowered him? Jesus isn't God, rather Jesus is a man empowered by God, and God was with Jesus, not that God is Jesus:

Acts 10
37you yourselves know what happened throughout all Judea, beginning from Galilee after the baptism that John proclaimed: 38how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power. He went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with him.
Again, you fail to understand basic theological principles. Jesus was indeed 100% human, and He had emptied Himself of the independent use of His power before He left Heaven to become a man. All of the miracles He did were done through the Holy Spirit, just as the Apostles (who were also human) did the miracles they did. But here's the difference: the Apostles didn't come from Heaven. Jesus did.
Read John 1:1-3 again following what was just revealed to you above. Also John 17:5 doesn't say in which way Jesus pre-existed. There are no examples of him in the Old Testament for you to cite to support your narrative. Your point ends right there at a dead end with no further examples to source.

It mentions no such thing. Begin with Philippians 2:5 in which Paul was telling the church to have the same mind as Jesus. After that, Paul told them how to have the mind of Jesus. It would be nonsense if Jesus were God that Paul was teaching people how to have the mind of God.

This verse mentions no such thing. You are making the error of importing your personal beliefs into the verse and projecting a pre-existence where none is mentioned. "Coming in the flesh" refers to being there in person, nothing more, and it is used of others in the Bible as well. Also, Meriam-Webster defines "in the flesh" as in person and alive https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/in the flesh

There are no sources who agree with you aside from trinitarian propagandists.

You're going to have a very hard time changing the Biblical narrative. You will find your error was exposed already.


You don't know enough about Scripture to be telling anyone what it says. Your "God is light" and "Jesus is light" example is false because Jesus said believers are the light as well in Matt 5:14 "You are the light of the world."

Your error is that you don't know where the light comes from. We will go back to John 1 again, to verse 9, which says "The true Light, who gives light to everyone, was coming into the world."

Following the chronology of John 1, the true Light was coming into the world after Jesus was already a man and had been alive about 30 years at that point. John 1:9 proves that Jesus is a man who received light just as others received light.

Yes there is.

John 17
21that all of them may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I am in You. May they also be in Us, so that the world may believe that You sent Me.
22I have given them the glory You gave Me, so that they may be one as We are one—

1 Corinthians 6
17But he who unites himself with the Lord is one with Him in spirit.

Alpha and omega, beginning and end, first and last, all essentially mean the same things. Let me ask you to help clear up your misunderstandings. How does the First and Last die if the First and Last is God?

Revelation 1
17When I saw Him, I fell at His feet like a dead man. But He placed His right hand on me and said, “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last, 18the Living One. I was dead, and behold, now I am alive forever and ever! And I hold the keys of Death and of Hades.

Yes he denied equality with God. The Father is greater than Jesus, since greater, they are not equal. You can't change it.

Now that Daniel 7 has proven that Jesus isn't the one on the throne nor inherently possessed sovereignty over the kingdom, we know that someone with greater authority than Jesus gave it to him, which in the context of Daniel 7 we know is the ancient of days. Means Jesus isn't God.

Jesus proved that Jesus isn't God.
I am done trying to lead you into the Light. As with grace (another participant in this thread), I wash my hands of you, and submit you to the Judge for the penalty of your doctrines.
 
Yes, this is speaking of the Father and Son (Jesus). The Word (Jesus) is with the God (the Father), and is God (equal to and united with the Father).

Wrong. All of John 1:1-3 is speaking about the Word. God there is the object with which the Word is. In verse 3, Him is referring to the Word still.

Wrong again. The Word is still the subject of the whole paragraph, and it is the Word through which everything is made. And this is paralleled and restated in Col 1:16-17, and Heb 1:2.

Agreed. Which means you need to go back to school and learn how to follow pronoun-antecedent agreement again.
John 1
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (not the Word), and the Word was God (was fully equal to and united with God). 2 He (the Word) was in the beginning with God (not the Word). 3 All things were made through him (the Word), and without him (the Word) was not any thing made that was made.


No need. You have failed to show that the Word is not the Creator.

Again, you fail to understand basic theological principles. Jesus was indeed 100% human, and He had emptied Himself of the independent use of His power before He left Heaven to become a man. All of the miracles He did were done through the Holy Spirit, just as the Apostles (who were also human) did the miracles they did. But here's the difference: the Apostles didn't come from Heaven. Jesus did.

I am done trying to lead you into the Light. As with grace (another participant in this thread), I wash my hands of you, and submit you to the Judge for the penalty of your doctrines.
Jesus laid aside using his own attributes, but still always had them, as while he accepted the limitations of being now in Human Flesh, was still always very God very man
 
Yes, this is speaking of the Father and Son (Jesus). The Word (Jesus) is with the God (the Father), and is God (equal to and united with the Father).

Wrong. All of John 1:1-3 is speaking about the Word. God there is the object with which the Word is. In verse 3, Him is referring to the Word still.

Wrong again. The Word is still the subject of the whole paragraph, and it is the Word through which everything is made. And this is paralleled and restated in Col 1:16-17, and Heb 1:2.

Agreed. Which means you need to go back to school and learn how to follow pronoun-antecedent agreement again.
John 1
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (not the Word), and the Word was God (was fully equal to and united with God). 2 He (the Word) was in the beginning with God (not the Word). 3 All things were made through him (the Word), and without him (the Word) was not any thing made that was made.


No need. You have failed to show that the Word is not the Creator.

Again, you fail to understand basic theological principles. Jesus was indeed 100% human, and He had emptied Himself of the independent use of His power before He left Heaven to become a man. All of the miracles He did were done through the Holy Spirit, just as the Apostles (who were also human) did the miracles they did. But here's the difference: the Apostles didn't come from Heaven. Jesus did.

I am done trying to lead you into the Light. As with grace (another participant in this thread), I wash my hands of you, and submit you to the Judge for the penalty of your doctrines.
All of your commentary essentially boils down to your opinion, interpretation, meaning it isn't scripture, though you try to pass it off as Scripture. The mistake you make, along with Grace, is that you project your beliefs and opinions into the Bible and present them as arguments rather than letting the Bible represent itself. What I want to do with you, when or if you are ready, is have a debate with me where you are only allowed to use the vocabulary, phrases, and terminology the Bible uses. I can do this, can you?
 
All of your commentary essentially boils down to your opinion, interpretation, meaning it isn't scripture, though you try to pass it off as Scripture. The mistake you make, along with Grace, is that you project your beliefs and opinions into the Bible and present them as arguments rather than letting the Bible represent itself. What I want to do with you, when or if you are ready, is have a debate with me where you are only allowed to use the vocabulary, phrases, and terminology the Bible uses. I can do this, can you?
Absolutely. I don't need any commentary. Scripture says it all.
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him not even one thing came into being that has come into being. 4 In Him was life, and the life was the Light of mankind. 5 And the Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not grasp it.

14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us; and we saw His glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 John *testified about Him and called out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who is coming after me has proved to be my superior, because He existed before me.’”

29 The next day he *saw Jesus coming to him, and *said, “Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world! 30 This is He in behalf of whom I said, ‘After me is coming a Man who has proved to be my superior, because He existed before me.’ 31 And I did not recognize Him, but so that He would be revealed to Israel, I came baptizing in water.” 32 And John testified, saying, “I have seen the Spirit descending as a dove out of heaven, and He remained upon Him. 33 And I did not recognize Him, but He who sent me to baptize in water said to me, ‘He upon whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining upon Him, this is the One who baptizes in the Holy Spirit.’ 34 And I myself have seen, and have testified that this is the Son of God.”


Jesus is the Word, and the Word is God: Jesus is God. Case closed! I don't need to go any further (although I could, and have), because this one passage proves my case and disproves yours.
 
Absolutely. I don't need any commentary. Scripture says it all.
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him not even one thing came into being that has come into being. 4 In Him was life, and the life was the Light of mankind. 5 And the Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not grasp it.

14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us; and we saw His glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 John *testified about Him and called out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who is coming after me has proved to be my superior, because He existed before me.’”

29 The next day he *saw Jesus coming to him, and *said, “Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world! 30 This is He in behalf of whom I said, ‘After me is coming a Man who has proved to be my superior, because He existed before me.’ 31 And I did not recognize Him, but so that He would be revealed to Israel, I came baptizing in water.” 32 And John testified, saying, “I have seen the Spirit descending as a dove out of heaven, and He remained upon Him. 33 And I did not recognize Him, but He who sent me to baptize in water said to me, ‘He upon whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining upon Him, this is the One who baptizes in the Holy Spirit.’ 34 And I myself have seen, and have testified that this is the Son of God.”


Jesus is the Word, and the Word is God: Jesus is God. Case closed! I don't need to go any further (although I could, and have), because this one passage proves my case and disproves yours.
Better reopen that case because it doesn't say Jesus is the Word and it doesn't say Jesus is God, doesn't say God incarnated, etc. Again, when you are ready to actually either debate or discuss the Bible using the words the Bible uses, I will be happy to correct your severe misunderstandings of the Bbile.

Let's quote more about the Word.

John explicitly said the Word is a that, which, this, that, what, and it in 1 John 1:1-3. Now we know with that Word is actually a thing, and not God. The Word is eternal life and eternal life is immortality. So your interpretation doesn't work, it's wrong. This is why we have the entire Bible with no mention as the Word being God or the Creator, etc. Where you were steered wrong in your introduction to Christianity, is that you were recruited into Logos theology. All of your misunderstandings are centered around one verse that doesn't say what you keep trying to deceive others about.

1 John 1
1That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our own eyes, which we have gazed upon and touched with our own hands—this is the Word of life. 2And this is the life that was revealed; we have seen it and testified to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life that was with the Father and was revealed to us.

3We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us. And this fellowship of ours is with the Father and with His Son, Jesus Christ. 4We write these things so that oura joy may be complete.
 
Better reopen that case because it doesn't say Jesus is the Word and it doesn't say Jesus is God, doesn't say God incarnated, etc.
Denying what Scripture plainly says is not an argument. It is simply denying Truth.
Let's quote more about the Word.

John explicitly said the Word is a that, which, this, that, what, and it in 1 John 1:1-3. Now we know with that Word is actually a thing, and not God. The Word is eternal life and eternal life is immortality. So your interpretation doesn't work, it's wrong. This is why we have the entire Bible with no mention as the Word being God or the Creator, etc. Where you were steered wrong in your introduction to Christianity, is that you were recruited into Logos theology. All of your misunderstandings are centered around one verse that doesn't say what you keep trying to deceive others about.

1 John 1
1That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our own eyes, which we have gazed upon and touched with our own hands—this is the Word of life. 2And this is the life that was revealed; we have seen it and testified to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life that was with the Father and was revealed to us.

3We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us. And this fellowship of ours is with the Father and with His Son, Jesus Christ. 4We write these things so that oura joy may be complete.
This passages is not talking about the Word; it is talking about Jesus. And even still, 1 John 1:2 states clearly that Jesus, "that which was from the beginning", was with the Father before the Beginning.

Let's rewrite 1 John 1:1 about you:
That which was born (wherever runningman was born, don't know and it doesn't matter), which has been heard repeatedly misusing Scripture, which we have not seen (because he is "from Earth"), etc.

You can be referred to as a "that". This fact has NOTHING to support your argument.
 
Denying what Scripture plainly says is not an argument. It is simply denying Truth.

This passages is not talking about the Word; it is talking about Jesus. And even still, 1 John 1:2 states clearly that Jesus, "that which was from the beginning", was with the Father before the Beginning.

Let's rewrite 1 John 1:1 about you:
That which was born (wherever runningman was born, don't know and it doesn't matter), which has been heard repeatedly misusing Scripture, which we have not seen (because he is "from Earth"), etc.

You can be referred to as a "that". This fact has NOTHING to support your argument.
So we have 1 John 1:1-3 that plainly describes the Word with impersonal pronouns, meaning that John knew that the Word is actually a thing. Now your interpretation has been successfully challenged and that changes everything. In literature, devices like personification can be used and we know that the Bible is full of such literary devices.

For example, throughout the Old Testament, there is no mention of a Word who is a He, Him, His, etc but there is mention of God's words being personified. The Word as creative, and embodying generally the divine will, is personified in Hebrew poetry (Psalm 33:6; Psalm 107:20; Psalm 147:15; Isaiah 55:10-11); and consequent upon this concrete and independent representation, divine attributes are predicated of it (Psalm 34:4; Isaiah 40:8; Psalm 119:105), so far as it was at the same time the continuous revelation of God in law and prophecy.

The way exegesis works is we form our conclusions based precedent of what is written before, not things that are never mentioned. So understanding John 1:1-14 around 1 John 1:1-3 is a good way to understand what the Word is. The Word is actually a thing, not God, not a god, but even personal at all, but qualitive because the "Word is God" in John 1:1 is an anarthrous predicate nominative, meaning that the translation you have provided is false.
 
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