Doug Brents
Active Member
You are delusional. Nothing I have posted supports your fantasies. You purport to know the Scripture. You till me.
The Trinity and all of its supporting doctrines are all circular in reasoning
- Thread starter Runningman
- Start date
FreeInChrist
Active Member
@Runningman
My friend GROK mentioned
The primary Bible verse that identifies Jesus as "the Word" is John 1:1, which states (in the NIV translation):
This is expanded in John 1:14:
These verses in the Gospel of John explicitly equate "the Word" (Greek: Logos) with Jesus Christ, presenting Him as divine, eternal, and incarnate.
AND he also says
The Bible teaches that Jesus is God incarnate (God in human flesh) most directly in John 1:1 and John 1:14, which together form a single, inseparable statement:
My friend GROK mentioned
The primary Bible verse that identifies Jesus as "the Word" is John 1:1, which states (in the NIV translation):
This is expanded in John 1:14:
These verses in the Gospel of John explicitly equate "the Word" (Greek: Logos) with Jesus Christ, presenting Him as divine, eternal, and incarnate.
AND he also says
The Bible teaches that Jesus is God incarnate (God in human flesh) most directly in John 1:1 and John 1:14, which together form a single, inseparable statement:
- John 1:1(NIV):
- John 1:14(NIV):
Supporting Verses
Other passages reinforce this doctrine:- Isaiah 9:6(prophesying the Messiah):
- Colossians 2:9(Paul writing about Christ):
- Philippians 2:6–7(about Jesus):
- Hebrews 1:3:
- John 10:30(Jesus speaking):
- John 20:28(Thomas to the risen Jesus):
Runningman
Active Member
You are a prime example of the Dunning-Krueger effect. Not only did prove my point by using the very same circular arguments I demonstrated as fallacious, but you did so confidently, as if you are in any position at all to be calling others delusional. Look in a mirror Doug.
Runningman
Active Member
One step at a time. That doesn't say Jesus is the Word. Ouch, the went south pretty fast.
Ask Grok how is Jesus the Word since the Word is a thing in 1 John 1:1-3?
False. The New World Translation provides the same information found in other Bible translations when context (surrounding words, verses, and chapters) is paid attention to.
If you look at what I've posted thus far in this thread, you will see that I've quoted from various Bible translations that have no connection with the New World Translation. I do that to make the point that all of the Bibles are saying the same thing when one pays attention to context. Below are examples of my posts where I quoted from other Bibles that were translated by Trinitarians. With a couple of exceptions, I also provided the weblink to the Bible version where I took the quotations from.
POST 439 -- Bibles quoted from: (1) New Living Translation; (2) Berean Literal Bible
POST 441 -- Bibles quoted from: (1) Young's Literal Translation; (2) Literal Standard Version, (3) Legacy Standard Version
POST 453 -- Bible quoted from: (1) English Standard Version
POST 470 -- Bible version quoted from: (1) New International Version
Last edited:
Where, at John 1:1, does it say anything about the Word existing "from time before time"? Please quote that verse of scripture and show it to the rest of us.
What do you think "the Word was with God; the Word was God" means? The verse for this is John 1:1
Are you trying to say God did not exist before time?
The portion of John 1:1 (the second independent clause) where it says "the Word was with God" is telling the reader that there were two entirely different spirit persons present. Unless you're going to tell all those reading this thread that God was with himself.
mikesw:
The portion of John 1:1 (the third independent clause) where it says "the Word was God" is a manipulation of scripture by Trinitarian translators. That third clause of John 1:1 should actually say "the Word was a god." That's right. Lower case "god" preceded by the indefinite article "a."
Of course, like all Trinitarians, you deliberately ignored the first independent Clause of John 1:1, which debunks the manipulation at Clause #3.
Oops. I'm not familiar with your spiritist interpretation. I have no idea what you mean by your post here.
oh wow. I should ask what your religion is. Did you say you are of the Jehovah's Witness cult?
I wonder where you got your expertise on Greek. Which university do you teach at? You offer a counter view to the all the teaching on Greek that I have viewed.
Your view would mean in John 1:18 that Jesus is the one and only "a god" who is in the Father's Bosom.
You would also have to say that John 3:16 that Jesus is the one and only son of many sons of God. Is that what you actually want us to believe?
Last edited:
Oops. I missed how you have taken on a polytheist view of Israel gods. How many gods do you think exist?
FreeInChrist
Active Member
Not when the NWT is the only translation I have ever seen that in John 1 says the Word was a God.....
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
This one was in the beginning with God. All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence.
that is not from surrounding context that was a deliberate atttempt to make the Word a lesser god... and you know that we do not believe in Polytheism
John 1:14 . So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of divine favor and truth.
And just look at the spin on verse 14... "belongs to an only-begotten son from a father;" a father?????????????/ What father?
The most misleading translation I have ever read.
Shall we start at Gen 1 and so verse by verse?
101G
Active Member
Alter2Ego said:
101G:
You are telling amazing grace "good luck because you will need it," when, in fact, amazing grace is correct and you are wrong when you claim "Jesus is God himself in the flesh."
You are attempting to turn Jesus Christ into the Creator by connecting John 1:1-3 (which applies to Jesus, the created son) to Isaiah 44:24 (which applies to Jehovah the Father).
First of all, you are quoting John 1:3 from a Trinitarian Bible translation where the translators are attempting to push the Trinity dogma. They purposely manipulated words by stating regarding Jesus: "all things were made by him...." That is an incorrect translation by the simple fact Jesus was himself created. A created being is not capable of creating.
Below are two Trinitarian Bibles where the translators at least had the decency to give a more accurate translation.
"God created everything through him, and nothing was created except through him." (John 1:3 -- New Living Translation)
John 1 NLT
"All things came into being through Him, and without Him not even one thing came into being that has come into being." (John 1:3 -- Berean Literal Bible)
John 1 BLB
There's a vast difference between "made by him" and "made through him." Jehovah is the power behind everything that was created. Isaiah 44:24 (which you erroneously apply to Jesus) confirms that. Almighty God simply allowed Jesus--his created son--the privilege of being the person through whom he, Jehovah, did the creating.
*********************************************************************
@Alter2Ego,
GINOLJC, to all.
First, get an old English bible like the Noah Webster's 1828 Dictionary of American English and LEARN the Difference between "by" and "through", which apparently you do not understand.
Second, the made up name "Jehovah" is not God personal name...... which by the way is Idolatry. the Name of God is "Yeshua" and transliterated into English "Jesus".
please study further
101G.
101G:
You are telling amazing grace "good luck because you will need it," when, in fact, amazing grace is correct and you are wrong when you claim "Jesus is God himself in the flesh."
You are attempting to turn Jesus Christ into the Creator by connecting John 1:1-3 (which applies to Jesus, the created son) to Isaiah 44:24 (which applies to Jehovah the Father).
First of all, you are quoting John 1:3 from a Trinitarian Bible translation where the translators are attempting to push the Trinity dogma. They purposely manipulated words by stating regarding Jesus: "all things were made by him...." That is an incorrect translation by the simple fact Jesus was himself created. A created being is not capable of creating.
Below are two Trinitarian Bibles where the translators at least had the decency to give a more accurate translation.
"God created everything through him, and nothing was created except through him." (John 1:3 -- New Living Translation)
John 1 NLT
"All things came into being through Him, and without Him not even one thing came into being that has come into being." (John 1:3 -- Berean Literal Bible)
John 1 BLB
There's a vast difference between "made by him" and "made through him." Jehovah is the power behind everything that was created. Isaiah 44:24 (which you erroneously apply to Jesus) confirms that. Almighty God simply allowed Jesus--his created son--the privilege of being the person through whom he, Jehovah, did the creating.
*********************************************************************
@Alter2Ego,
GINOLJC, to all.
First, get an old English bible like the Noah Webster's 1828 Dictionary of American English and LEARN the Difference between "by" and "through", which apparently you do not understand.
Second, the made up name "Jehovah" is not God personal name...... which by the way is Idolatry. the Name of God is "Yeshua" and transliterated into English "Jesus".
please study further
101G.
101G
Active Member
You just contradicted yourself, you said, "Even when certain Bible translations use the expression "who was with me?" it does not change the declaration by Jehovah himself when he declared that he alone "stretched out the heavens, who by myself spread out the earth."
if what you say is true, answer 101G this..... Hebrews 1:10 "And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:" NOW THIS, Isaiah 44:6 "Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God." beside the "LORD" there is no GOD, right, NOW THIS, Zechariah 12:1 "The burden of the word of the LORD for Israel, saith the LORD, which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him."
LISTEN Closely, "WHO laid the foundation of the earth?" remember you said your Jehovah "ALONE" is creator.
101G.
101G
Active Member
civic
Active Member
AI has more insight into the truth than the uni. That says allot about the lack of spiritual truth and the scriptures.
A quick search here nailed it lol.
Unitarianism is considered unbiblical by many Christians primarily because it denies the deity of Jesus Christ and the doctrine of the Trinity, which many believe is supported by biblical passages. Instead of accepting Jesus as the eternal, co-equal Son of God, Unitarians view him as a created being, an exalted human, and the Messiah who was given authority by God. This view is seen as conflicting with New Testament teachings that describe Jesus as pre-existent, the creator, and being fully divine.
101G
Active Member
Answer, because as the Diversity, or the EQUAL SHARE of himself, or the Ordinal Last, he laid down his attributes in order to give that "NATURAL LIFE" ... "BLOOD" while in flesh as the propitiation for our sins. supportive scripture, 1 John 2:2 "And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world."
next question.
101G.
101G
Active Member
ERROR, this was ordained before the foundation of the Earth. see 1 Peter 1:19 & 20.
101G.
FreeInChrist
Active Member
Similar threads
- Poll
