It was a prophecy. A lot of things God had Israel doing served as prophecies. Better put, were prophetic. This was as well.It wasn't a prophecy; it was an actual ritual performed by the Hebrew people in accordance with the command of God.
That does not change the fact that it was also prophetic. Consider that Moses getting water from the rock of Horeb was prophetic... both times. Consider that Moses raising the viper on a stake in the wilderness was also prophetic. These were also rituals performed, in this case by Moses, for the Israelites.26 And it shall come to pass, when your children shall say unto you, What mean ye by this service?
27 That ye shall say, It is the sacrifice of the LORD’s passover, who passed over the houses of the children of Israel in Egypt, when he smote the Egyptians, and delivered our houses. And the people bowed the head and worshipped.
28 And the children of Israel went away, and did as the LORD had commanded Moses and Aaron, so did they.
Exodus 12:26–28.
It was meant to be prophetic for the future. However, since the Israelites had allegorized the true Messiah away, they failed to recognize Christ in those prophetic instances. Jesus didn't fail to recognize Himself, as He Himself brought up some of these instances. He specifically mentioned and underlined the nature of Moses raising the viper on a stake in the wilderness.As we look back in hindsight, we can now see this service foreshadowed the ministry of Christ, but these things were hidden from the Hebrew people in the day God commanded them to perform these sacrifices. Exodus 12 describes what the children of Israel were to do as a means of protection from death which God was to soon exercise against the Egyptian Gentiles as judgment who were not included in this protection. This "Lord's Passover" was to be done every new year of the Hebrew calendar by the Hebrew people.
"14 And just as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, so must the Son of Man be lifted up, 15 so that everyone who [e]believes will have eternal life in Him."
Yes, the Passover is for the Hebrews. It is not for the Gentiles. I believe it is mentioned in scripture that no Jews were to participate in the Passover with Gentiles. It is solely for the Jews. It was about the Jews salvation by God, before He made them His chosen people. He already considered them, for the sake of the promises that proceeded the covenant, to be His people. However, it does not pertain to Jesus only being the salvation of the Hebrews. It solely has to do with Israel being God's chosen people. You are sinfully adding to this passage. I am leaving it where it is.God commanded this "Lord's Passover" upon the Hebrew people and not upon Gentiles. It never included Gentiles from the first time these services were done even until years after the last Passover which Jesus Christ Himself was given by God as His lamb that would protect the children of Israel only and not Gentiles. Gentiles were never part of this service then when it was first done while in Egypt with Moses and Gentiles were never part of this service when Jesus came and died on His cross for the children of Israel later. All things pertaining to this "Lord's Passover" were committed to the children of Israel and never to Gentiles. Understanding the "Lord's Passover" as it pertains to Jesus Christ was a sacrifice by God to and for the children of Israel only. Jesus' sacrifice was to and for the children of Israel and never for Gentiles. Thus, Gentiles are not atoned by the Lord's sacrifice and the judgment of death rests upon them as it did for the Egyptians in Moses' day.
No, this was not an atonement for the children of Israel. That is Yom Kippur. The Passover was meant to be in memoriam of God bringing the Israelites out of Egypt. That is all. I mean that is specifically what God HIMSELF said "It is the sacrifice of the LORD’s passover, who passed over the houses of the children of Israel in Egypt, when he smote the Egyptians, and delivered our houses."Gentiles were never part of the "Lord's Passover" and as this service eventually came to be known as an atonement for the children of Israel and never for Gentiles. Jesus did not come to destroy the Law nor to change it but to fulfill it and as the lamb of God it is His blood that God used to atone for the sins of the children of Israel and not for Gentiles as Gentiles were never extended protection from sin.
Why was it called passover? Because God passed over. It speaks to the salvation of the Hebrews from the Egyptians. The beginning of Israels recognition as God's chosen people. Don't sinfully add to this.
That is not what is being said here. Context is key.24 But Jesus did not commit himself unto them, because he knew all men,
25 And needed not that any should testify of man: for he knew what was in man. John 2:23–25.
God knew precisely that sin as thief came to steal, kill, and destroy the children of Israel and had not God provided atonement for their sin then the children of Israel would be in the same judgment of death for their sins as Gentiles.
23 Now when He was in Jerusalem at the Passover, during the feast, many believed in His name as they observed His signs which He was doing. 24 But Jesus, on His part, was not entrusting Himself to them, because He knew all people, 25 and because He did not need anyone to testify about mankind, for He Himself knew what was in mankind.
You have to take scripture as given, not read your beliefs into it. One point made is that signs don't/didn't save anyone. We are saved by the preaching of the gospel. The signs simply certify the one who is preaching. The reason the apostles had gifts was to certify and validate their message by using the gifts to perform miracles. The belief being, in the minds of the people, if one speaks of God and then performs miracles of God, then they must be speaking truth, or God would reject them and... no miracles. These gifts validated the church by validating the church's message.
God WILL (future) save Israel. He has prophesied to it. He will be their salvation. Israel is not the church, however, there are Jews in the church. Israel is distinct from the church. That is to say that right now there are two distinct groups. The church, made up of non-Jewish Gentiles and Jews, and the nation of Israel, secular, made up of God rejecting Jesus rejecting Jews who will never be saved, and Jews who have not rejected God, but have not yet accepted Jesus, God's elect in Israel. They are not a part of the church because... they aren't saved yet. They will be a part of the church, and it is of the elect that Peter brings up that God isn't being slack or slow in fulfilling the promise of HIs return. He is patiently waiting for the last of the elect that is to be saved prior to the beginning of the end, to enter the fold. Once they come in, God's promise will be fulfilled, and there isn't a film in Hollywood that could ever hope to outmatch the craziness that is to come. (The Great Tribulation, the war between the beast and Jesus, etc.)If God loved Israel, He would save Israel. And by sending Jesus Christ as the lamb of God and sacrificing Him for the sins of the children of Israel shows God's love for this people. Israel is God's Chosen people, they are His Church and Bride, and they are all saved by the sacrifice of Jesus Christ in obedience to God the Father. Gentiles are not atoned by Jesus' sacrifice for since the first Passover in Egypt Gentiles have been outside God's protection and covenants. God never Passed Over the sins of Gentiles and they stand in judgment of God for their sins.
Sorry, that isn't how language works. It has already been explained by people who understand the language that it speaks to the world. You can be sure because you have Luke's version of the Olivet discourse that speaks to Israel, and then Matthew's version speaks to the world. Joel also speaks to Israel. In Luke, Jesus doesn't speak of the Great tribulation, but says the time of her (Israel's)torment has come. I'm not sure, but that could probably be linked to the time of Jacob's trouble in the Old Testament. That is said to be the worst time for Israel, from the founding of the people of Israel (so back to Moses getting the Law and establishing the covenant). It ends with the Gentiles trampling over Jerusalem until the times of the Gentiles is fulfilled. (Where has something like this been mentioned before? Oh yeah. Paul in Romans. And, he wasn't talking about Jewish Gentiles in Luke, but non-Jewish Gentiles. Paul is the same. Non-Jewish Gentiles. So the Muslims trampled on Jerusalem, the Crusaders really did a job on Jerusalem, etc. However, there will come a time in the future when Israel will once again own Jerusalem. When the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled. In Matthew, it says that there is a Great tribulation coming, and does not invoke the history of Israel, but the history of the world. Why? The Great Tribulation will envelope the world. It is both the final tribulation of Israel, but also the whole world, with God pouring out His wrath.The word "world" is understood in context to the children of Israel for they are a people in covenant with God and have been atoned of their sins.
The above is not true except the first sentence. However Yom Kippur is NOT the Passover. Gentiles are saved... by faith. Cornelius (who was one who fears God, a term only used for non-Jewish Gentiles.) Someone of dual nationality parents who chooses to follow Judaism and be Jewish is a CONVERT. Not even a proselyte. That is used only for non-Jewish Gentiles. While Jesus sacrifice most certainly atones, it is NOT the same as the sacrifice of atonement, which did not wash away sin, but only served as a covering. And it did not cover sin for everyone. It also did not cover all sin. So, unlike Christ's sacrifice, the sacrifice of atonement Yom Kippur was... imperfect. Hence the need for Christ. By the way, I tell you again, Saul changed his own name to Paul in his writings, which is the non-Jewish Gentile form of his name. HE did it, because he was called by God to bring the gospel to the non-Jewish Gentiles. And he did. I showed it before in scripture. The covenant does not save. We are saved through faith. There is no merit in salvation. There is no boasting. There is no "I'm saved because I'm Jewish". That's boasting. We are saved by faith.Gentiles were never part of the "Lord's Passover" in Egypt and never part of the "Lord's Passover" today. To teach that God loved Gentiles and atoned them by Jesus' sacrifice, which was made under the Law to save a people under the Law, is to teach a change in the Law of Moses and the Passover that God gave to Israel only. This teaching that Gentiles are saved goes against biblical history for Gentiles were never God's Chosen people nor are Gentiles God's Church or Bride. Gentiles were never part of the "Lord's Passover." You are adding to the Bible things that it does not teach. If God wanted to atone Gentiles, then they would have been part of the first Passover in Egypt and this would defeat the purpose of God from that day forward to our day today. Saul never taught non-Hebrew Gentiles were ever saved by God at any time in the history of the world. The Bible is clear. God gave the Passover to Israel and not to Gentiles - Egyptian or otherwise - Gentiles are not in covenant with God and never a part of the "Lord's Passover" and as such do not have their sins atoned.
Where i the context? Why did you cut this out? Is this because you know verse 3 changes everything?4 Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth
the adoption,
and the glory,
and the covenants,
and the giving of the law,
and the service of God,
and the promises;
5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh
Christ came,
who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.
Romans 9:4–5.
" 3 For I could [a]wish that I myself were accursed, separated from Christ for the sake of my countrymen, my kinsmen according to the flesh, 4 who are Israelites, to whom belongs the adoption as sons and daughters, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the Law, the temple service, and the promises; 5 whose are the fathers, and from whom is the Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, God blessed [c]forever. Amen.
What comes next?
"6 But it is not as though the word of God has failed." (I can quote mine too). Paul is saying that though it clearlly appears that the word of God has failed Israel, though (key word) it appears that way, that isn't what has happened.
"For they are not all Israel who are descended from Israel;
Wait a minute. They aren't? Why have you never brought this up? (I know you have, but you completely ignored the significance.
7 nor are they all children because they are Abraham’s [d]descendants,"
Isn't that like saying they aren't all a part of the covenant even though they are Abraham's descendants? Doesn't that mean that it DOESN'T MATTER?
"but: “[e]through Isaac your [f]descendants shall be named.” 8 That is, it is not the children of the flesh [g]who are children of God, but the children of the promise are regarded as [h]descendants."
So it is not enough to simply be... Jewish. It is not simply enough to be a child of Abraham. (Jesus Himself made that clear.) Even for all your bleating, this is not the case.
Paul never states it as this. John the Baptist said that He is the Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the World. Salvation would go beyond Israel, but it has it's START in Israel, and, by God's great mercy, it will also have it's END in Israel, when Jesus, their Messiah, rescues them from the schemes of Satan, destroying the armies of the beast, and ultimately destroying the beast, and throwing Satan into the lake of fire.Christ died to and for the children of Israel for He is the "Lord's Passover." Saul makes this very clear.
4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. Galatians 4:3–5.
You ignore Galatians 3
"6 Just as Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness. 7 Therefore, recognize that it is those who are of faith who are sons of Abraham. 8 The Scripture, foreseeing that God [j]would justify the [k]Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, “All the nations will be blessed in you.” 9 So then, those who are of faith are blessed with [l]Abraham, the believer.
would justify the non-Jewish Gentiles. Notice would is future tense. So this is not part of the Old Testament times, but the New Testament, and is in line with the testimony of the New Testament. It doesn't say these non-Jewish Gentiles are saved by the covenant, or by the Law, but by faith. As God had decided. And Paul says that the Old Testament testifies to that in the promise made to Abraham. It does not say they are part of the covenant, but are blessed in Abraham the believer. That is, through the same faith that Abraham showed when he was going to sacrifice Isaac. The same faith that looked forward to Christ, of which Jesus Himself said that Abraham rejoiced to see His day. The saved come out of the world, first from the Jews, then from the Greeks/Gentiles. Salvation is of/from the Jews. If it doesn't go anywhere, as you say, then why does the Bible bother to say this. It should say Salvation is for the Jews, but it does not. It says Salvation is of/from the Jews. A big difference. That is why the prophecies have the Gentiles coming to the Jews in search of knowledge of God and salvation. (I believe that is the Millennial Kingdom, where the world is populated by people who don't know God, due to be born during the millennial kingdom, who seek out God through the Jews.) There are those Gentiles who will know God, but I believe that life continues as it had through the Millennial kingdom for those who survive the Tribulation. Those who accept Christ during the Tribulation and survive.
But Saul says that some become a law unto themselves, by practicing the law without knowing the law. He also says something about these Gentiles judging the Jews. That is, by their actions.Gentile were never under the Law and as Saul states, only those under the Law are redeemed. Adding Gentiles after the fact when there is no history in Scripture of any covenant between God and non-Hebrew Gentiles and this means Gentiles are under God's judgment against unatoned sin.
The Gentiles are being saved now, along with individual Jews. Why? Paul says that Israel is facing a partial hardening and blindness from God, until the fulness of the Gentiles has come in. And then all Israel will be saved. (I believe that salvation is recorded in Zechariah, and elsewhere.) The passover does not atone sin. That is Yom Kippur. The saving relationship between God and non-Hebrew Gentiles is grace and faith. Ephesians 2:8-9. You really do need to learn. You ignore, twist, and outright deny things God has said. Israel is special, and there is no denying that. Scripture is clear. However, Jesus sacrifice was as Paul said, a propitiation for not only the Jews, but for the whole world. That is, available for the whole world, but only for those who believe in Christ by faith.The reason why there is suffering in the human race is because of sin. It steals, kills, and destroys. But God has atoned the children of Israel and on the last day Israel shall be saved, Israel shall be redeemed as says the Scripture which is a Hebrew Scripture and record of God's dealing with this people. God has covenant with Israel and God has no covenant with Gentiles. Thus, Gentiles do not have their sins atoned by the "Lord's Passover." On the last day they will be judged by God and in the end be eternlly separated from God in eternity as they have been separated from God in time and in world history. There is no saving relationship between God and non-Hebrew Gentiles. None.
Apparently you don't know what Yom Kippur is. That is a serious issue. Yom Kippur is the sacrifice of atonement, not the passover.The bottom line is God has covenant with Israel and has saved Israel through the "Lord's Passover." Gentiles were never a part of the "Lord's Passover" and as such are not atoned. You are adding to the Bible things not contained in Scripture. You are adding to the Bible Gentiles in the Lord's covenants when Gentiles never had a covenant with God. The "Lord's Passover" was given originally to the children of Israel and every year the children of Israel were atoned by God for their sin. The New Covenant instituted by Jesus Christ at His last Passover in His body and blood was a sacrifice to and for the children of Israel ONLY. Gentiles were never part of the "Lord's Passover." Never.
Again, the Gentiles do not need a covenant with God, for scripture has foreshadowed that God would justify the Gentiles by faith. God wins this one. You lose. Though Peter mentioned something about Jews being saved the same way, by faith. Which happens to be what we see today with Jews joining the church. By faith. (And I mean joining the body of Christ, not becoming Gentiles or acting like Gentiles.)The Hebrew Scripture of Law, Psalms, and Prophets records God's dealing with Abraham and his seed. It is a record of God's relationship with Israel and Gentiles do not have any covenant with God they can speak of. Gentiles do not have any covenant with God. None.