civic
Well-known member
Nothing is different since both the Father and Son are God.Then you have not demonstrated anything that makes Jesus different from the apostles in their seeing the Father. Case closed.
care closed
next fallacy
Nothing is different since both the Father and Son are God.Then you have not demonstrated anything that makes Jesus different from the apostles in their seeing the Father. Case closed.
another major flaw and fallacy.You're making the claim that Jesus saw God and the apostles didn't here. I say that they all know God. Seeing = knowing.
See why John 1:18 says what it does now?
John 1
18No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
I can see how you could think that from those verses. But tell me what you believe Jesus emptied Himself of so He could suffer death in this passage?Jesus glory was his death and crucifixion according to Scripture. So the glory Jesus was referring to before the world existed was with God in a prophetic sense, not a literal sense. Revelation and Hebrews prove such since he wasn't actually crucified before the world was, therefore he received his glory at the cross.
Hebrews 2
9But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because He suffered death, so that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone.
Revelation 13
8All inhabitants of the earth will worship the beast—all whose names have not been written in the Lamb’s book of life, the Lamb who was slain from the creation of the world.
Jesus' name isn't in John 1:1. You're providing an interpretation.
Thomas made a declaration and didn't address Jesus.
The Greek uses the "the" definite article before Great God, pointing out distinction between God and Jesus.
The context shows that God and Jesus aren't the same person.
Again you fail to distinguish the noun Theos being used as a proper name and Theos used to denote deityWhat you're doing here is using isolated examples and semantical arguments that are contradicted by the Biblical narrative and dozens of other examples. Your interpretation holds contradictions with many verses that plainly show God and Jesus aren't the same person.
Try reading the first few verses of all of the letters. All of them identify God and Jesus as distinct from one another.
an argument from silence from you.Jesus' name isn't in John 1:1. You're providing an interpretation.
Thomas made a declaration and didn't address Jesus.
The Greek uses the "the" definite article before Great God, pointing out distinction between God and Jesus.
The context shows that God and Jesus aren't the same person.
What you're doing here is using isolated examples and semantical arguments that are contradicted by the Biblical narrative and dozens of other examples. Your interpretation holds contradictions with many verses that plainly show God and Jesus aren't the same person.
Try reading the first few verses of all of the letters. All of them identify God and Jesus as distinct from one another.
You seem to think you know everything. I don't believe anyone can help you.another major flaw and fallacy.
Since both the Father/Son are God to see Jesus is seeing God.
next...........
no matter how you try and slice and dice it you fail.
hope this helps !!!
You're describing Tom's post which employs the argument from silence. One of his statements was about John 1:1 meaning Jesus is the Word, but it's silent on mentioning Jesus' name. You're getting desperate and careless... the ad homs from you aren't even making sense anymore.an argument from silence from you.
The Father never said. " I alone Am God "
so much for your claims and fallacious arguments once again.
next
You're imagining an incarnation and it's a foundational error. We need to take some steps back to address this, many steps back. It'll require you agreeing with some basic truths first. Step 1, do you agree that the word incarnation is not in the Bible?A blind man can see that it is the word who became flesh and was known as Jesus Christ
John 1:1–34 (NASB 2020) — 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him not even one thing came into being that has come into being. 4 In Him was life, and the life was the Light of mankind. 5 And the Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not grasp it. 6 A man came, one sent from God, and his name was John. 7 He came as a witness, to testify about the Light, so that all might believe through him. 8 He was not the Light, but he came to testify about the Light. 9 This was the true Light that, coming into the world, enlightens every person. 10 He was in the world, and the world came into being through Him, and yet the world did not know Him. 11 He came to His own, and His own people did not accept Him. 12 But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name, 13 who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of a man, but of God. 14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us; and we saw His glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 John testified about Him and called out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who is coming after me has proved to be my superior, because He existed before me.’ ” 16 For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. 17 For the Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ. 18 No one has seen God at any time; God the only Son, who is in the arms of the Father, He has explained Him. 19 This is the testimony of John, when the Jews sent priests and Levites to him from Jerusalem to ask him, “Who are you?” 20 And he confessed and did not deny; and this is what he confessed: “I am not the Christ.” 21 And so they asked him, “What then? Are you Elijah?” And he said, “I am not.” “Are you the Prophet?” And he answered, “No.” 22 Then they said to him, “Who are you? Tell us, so that we may give an answer to those who sent us. What do you say about yourself?” 23 He said, “I am THE VOICE OF ONE CALLING OUT IN THE WILDERNESS, ‘MAKE THE WAY OF THE LORD STRAIGHT,’ as Isaiah the prophet said.” 24 And the messengers had been sent from the Pharisees. 25 They asked him, and said to him, “Why then are you baptizing, if you are not the Christ, nor Elijah, nor the Prophet?” 26 John answered them, saying, “I baptize in water, but among you stands One whom you do not know. 27 It is He who comes after me, of whom I am not worthy even to untie the strap of His sandal.” 28 These things took place in Bethany beyond the Jordan, where John was baptizing people. 29 The next day he saw Jesus coming to him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world! 30 This is He in behalf of whom I said, ‘After me is coming a Man who has proved to be my superior, because He existed before me.’ 31 And I did not recognize Him, but so that He would be revealed to Israel, I came baptizing in water.” 32 And John testified, saying, “I have seen the Spirit descending as a dove out of heaven, and He remained upon Him. 33 And I did not recognize Him, but He who sent me to baptize in water said to me, ‘He upon whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining upon Him, this is the One who baptizes in the Holy Spirit.’ 34 And I myself have seen, and have testified that this is the Son of God.”
The word the only son from the father was identified by John as Jesus
So right off the bat we see scripture falsifies your theology
More denying of scripture
John 20:28–29 (NASB 2020) — 28 Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!” 29 Jesus said to him, “Because you have seen Me, have you now believed? Blessed are they who did not see, and yet believed.”
Sorry but when two nouns are separated by and (kai0 and the article appears on before the first noun then one person is spoken of
Granville sharps rule
Agreed because that is modalist and not trinitarian doctrine
You continually conflate themrat
Again you fail to distinguish the noun Theos being used as a proper name and Theos used to denote deity
I know who God is and who God is not, that's for sure.You seem to think you know everything. I don't believe anyone can help you.
He is the Word- the Word became flesh ( the Word pre existed His birth as a man ) - His name is Jesus.You're describing Tom's post which employs the argument from silence. One of his statements was about John 1:1 meaning Jesus is the Word, but it's silent on mentioning Jesus' name. You're getting desperate and careless... the ad homs from you aren't even making sense anymore.
Paul equates emptying himself to Jesus humbling himself in verses 7-8. Rather than Jesus doing his own will, he obeyed God, saying "Not my will, but your will be done..." before submitting to the cross. The life Jesus chose in obedience to God was of his own will. He made deliberate, conscious, choices to trust and obey God and it requires humility. Jesus was popular in his day, very popular. He could have been a king, perhaps, and that comes with a lot of money and power, but that isn't what Jesus wanted to do.I can see how you could think that from those verses. But tell me what you believe Jesus emptied Himself of so He could suffer death in this passage?
5 Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, as He already existed in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself by taking the form of a bond-servant and being born in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death: death on a cross. 9 For this reason also God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, 10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee will bow, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
I keep asking you people to post the Scripture where Jesus is described as the Word and no one has done it yet.He is the Word- the Word became flesh ( the Word pre existed His birth as a man ) - His name is Jesus.
Duh from the context. Your problem like all who deny Christ is you isolate a verse and remove it from the context which reveals the meaning of words/phrases.I keep asking you people to post the Scripture where Jesus is described as the Word and no one has done it yet.
That's not enough. Do you believe Jesus existed before He became a baby in Mary's womb?Paul equates emptying himself to Jesus humbling himself in verses 7-8. Rather than Jesus doing his own will, he obeyed God, saying "Not my will, but your will be done..." before submitting to the cross. The life Jesus chose in obedience to God was of his own will. He made deliberate, conscious, choices to trust and obey God and it requires humility. Jesus was popular in his day, very popular. He could have been a king, perhaps, and that comes with a lot of money and power, but that isn't what Jesus wanted to do.
Rather than choosing a life that glorified himself, he chose a life that glorified God. It takes humility to take a life of scorn and rejection that culminates in a painful death on a cross, but Jesus did it because God wanted that for the greater good.
This doesn't say the Word is Jesus. It says the Word became flesh.Duh from the context. Your problem like all who deny Christ is you isolate a verse and remove it from the context which reveals the meaning of words/phrases.
14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 (John testified concerning him. He cried out, saying, “This is the one I spoke about when I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.’”) 16 Out of his fullness we have all received grace in place of grace already given. 17 For the law was given through Moses;grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. 18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
The context reveals the following biblical facts
1- the Word was God ( John 1:1 )
2- the Word who was God became flesh ( a man ) John 1:14
3- He is the One and Only Son
4- He existed before John who was 6 months older
5- He is identified as Jesus Christ in 1:17
conclusion: The Word is Jesus Christ who is God.
John 1:1,14
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God…
This passage refers to the Word as a thing.1 John 1:1
That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;
Fake verse.1 John 5:7
For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
This isn't Jesus, but rather the Father.Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.
hope this helps !!!
Not anymore than he was literally slain before the world was created. Just existed in God's plan, foreknowledge, and pre-destination.That's not enough. Do you believe Jesus existed before He became a baby in Mary's womb?
Thanks for your answer, RunningmanI also might add, I love your approach that suggests we can be brothers and sisters. I thought that too, at the beginning, but the reality is they probably hate you and believe you have no place in heaven. They aren't your brothers and sisters and if they are they have a lot of cleanup to do to earn that place. Don't hold your breath. They think you're going to hell man. Why do you talk about them like they're your family?
You ran from the textYou're imagining an incarnation and it's a foundational error. We need to take some steps back to address this, many steps back. It'll require you agreeing with some basic truths first. Step 1, do you agree that the word incarnation is not in the Bible?
Sorry that is false and you are in denialYou're describing Tom's post which employs the argument from silence. One of his statements was about John 1:1 meaning Jesus is the Word, but it's silent on mentioning Jesus' name. You're getting desperate and careless... the ad homs from you aren't even making sense anymore.
Very, very typically.Quite simply typically the term God was used as a proper name to denote the Father while lord was reserved for Jesus