Jesus denied being God

my belief system, no God system of belief for us to believe. Listen carefully. JESUS is the ONLY Person who is God. God is a single PERSON, and as a single Person he is the H259 ECHAD of, of, of, himself shared in flesh/with blood in a G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') state while in that flesh, as Son. this is why he is GIVEN ALL POWER in Revelation. because of his OVER-COMING of DEATH and redeeming us from death. and this was accomplished in his resurrection from the dead...... by his Amalgamation of Spirit/Father/LORD/First, and Flesh/Son/Lord/Last, (per John 17:5).

ONE PERSON in the H259 ECHAD of himself..... simply put the "EQUAL SHARE" of himself.... now the NEW MAN, or the First Fruit in the NEW CREATION,

if people just can understand the EQUAL SHARE, which as the apostle Paul wrote in Romans 1:20 "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:" Romans 1:21 "Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened."

there is no excuse, for the evidence ... as said is clear from the CREATION. what do 101G mean? ADAM and EVE show this concept. Before Eve was Brough Forth she was in, in, in, Adam. in her bring forth she is OF, OF, OF, Adam, meaning she is ADAM, just as the Lord JESUS is OF, OF, OF, God a plurality of ONE. just as God did not get any-more ... dust to make the woman, nor was there any other Spirit for the Lord Jesus to be brough forth. it's the same one person, before sin, the woman Name was ADAM. scripture, Genesis 5:1 "This is the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him;" Genesis 5:2 "Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created." called their name Adam? yes, both of their name was "ADAM" only until after they sin was "The Woman" given a separate and Distinct NAME. understand, separate and Distinct in sin? but before the fall they was "ONE" as the Greek say, G243 Allos. after the Fall GG2087 as ONE.

but in Christ, whom he has GATHER together are G1520 εἷς heis (heis') n. scripture, Galatians 3:28 "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus." metaphorically, "union" and "concord". many in UNION as ONE

101G.
Echad refers to the number one. It's used all over the old testament in ways that don't align with your philosophy. A married couple can be echad, yes, but Adam and Even didn't become the same person. It can be used in a metaphorical way. Oneness with God isn't something that makes someone God. Many can be one with God. That's a teaching all over the New Testament.
 
Echad refers to the number one.
that's your mistake, and 101G will prove it. .... by scripture. Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."

so is this one person, the First. and a separate and distinct person who is Last? ... OR is this the same ONE PERSON?

your answer please..... Remember the scripture says the "LORD", all caps.

101G.
 
been answered all of your questions. listen carefully... GOD IS NO RESPECTOR OF PERSON, no matter which nation one is from .... including Israel, because Israel is JUST ONE OF THE NATION, that Abraham is a Father of...... :whistle: YIKES! ....... (smile).

101G.
God IS a respecter of persons:

4 And Abel, he also brought of the firstlings of his flock and of the fat thereof. And the LORD had respect unto Abel [the person] and to his offering:
5 But unto Cain [the person] and to his offering he had not respect. And Cain was very wroth, and his countenance fell. Gen. 4:4–5.
 
You write from the Jews thinking. I speak about the Lord's thinking. What the Jews thought about Gentiles means nothing. What matters is what God thinks of them. And He invited them in. Peter understood this and so did Paul.
OK. You want to concern yourself with God's thinking? Then let's do that. Here is what God thinks of non-Hebrew Gentiles:

17 All nations before him are as nothing;
And they are counted to him less than nothing, and vanity.
Isaiah 40:17.

There you have it. Straight from the prophet Isaiah's "mouth"
 
OK. You want to concern yourself with God's thinking? Then let's do that. Here is what God thinks of non-Hebrew Gentiles:

17 All nations before him are as nothing;
And they are counted to him less than nothing, and vanity.
Isaiah 40:17.

There you have it. Straight from the prophet Isaiah's "mouth"
To rightly understand the Word of God, one must understand what part is written to the Church of God and what part is written for the learning of the Church. Every word from Genesis 1:1, to Revelation 22:21, is written for our learning. However, not all of the words from Genesis 1:1, to Revelation 22:21, are addressed to us. We must learn to distinguish not only the various people, but also the different time periods God has spoken to if we want to understand the written Word of God. The time God spoke to the children of Israel is not the same time period He has spoken to us. The time He spoke to the prophets in the time of the Old Testament is not the same time period He spoke to His Son Jesus Christ in the time of the gospels.

Administrations must be adapted to the time periods in which they are carried out. The administration with Adam before the fall was different from the one with his immediate family after the fall. The administration with Israel “under the law” was carried out on different principles from the present administration of Grace. This present administration is different from the one that will characterize the return of Christ. The administration of Judgment will be different from the one that will belong to the administration of Glory, when all things shall be gathered together in one under the headship of Christ.

We will never understand the truth of God’s Word if we neglect to rightly divide the subject matter. As far as we are concerned in this Grace administration, what happened to Israel in the Old Testament was written for our learning. If we do not rightly divide to whom it's addressed—the Jew, Gentile, or the Church of God, we will use one truth to contradict another truth, and we will use what is true for one group in contrast to what is also true for another group.

These different administrations are suited to different times because God has spoken everything to its proper time and administration. We will never understand the truth of God’s Word if we read into one administration what God tells us belongs to another administration. If we believe what God said in one administration and carry it into another administration that was on a different principle, we will be taking what is true for one time, and using it to contradict what is also true for another time. When we mix them all together, by jumbling the whole Bible together: Law, Gospel, Grace, Judgment, Glory, Jew, Gentile, and the Church of God, we will be very confused in our understanding of the truth of God’s Word.
 
that's your mistake, and 101G will prove it. .... by scripture. Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."

so is this one person, the First. and a separate and distinct person who is Last? ... OR is this the same ONE PERSON?

your answer please..... Remember the scripture says the "LORD", all caps.

101G.
I'll prove you wrong.

Was the first (ECHAD) day one day or two days? 🍿

Genesis 1
5And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day.
 
I'll prove you wrong.

Was the first (ECHAD) day one day or two days? 🍿

Genesis 1
5And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day.
Listen carefully.

Physical LIGHT vs WISDOM/Spiritual LIGHT
now there is a couple of distinction between what happen on day 1 at the beginning, and day 4 concerning "LIGHT".

#1. God divided the light from the darkness in verse 4, on the first day. (IGNORANCE/Darkness separated from TRUTH/Light), so no one has to be IGNORANT, or at least stay in it. but in verse 14 it is the sun and the moon "light" on the earth that divided the day from the night. we have two division of light/day, and darkness/night. if it was good, why divide it again? and in verse 4, it's, "LIGHT", a single designation, whereas in verse 14 it's plural.

#2. Here's the revelation,
the definition of Light in verse 4, is H216 אוֹר 'owr (ore) n-f.
1. illumination.
2. (concretely) luminary (in every sense, including lightning, happiness, etc.).
[from H215]
KJV: bright, clear, + day, light (-ning), morning, sun.

Notice that word "happiness" in the definition #2, because I'll be coming back to it.

the definition of “Light” in verse 14, the shinning light, not the object that is the source of the light, but the shining light itself is,
H215 אוֹר 'owr (ore) v.
1. to be luminous.
2. (causative) to make luminous.
{literally and metaphorically}
[a primitive root]
KJV: X break of day, glorious, kindle, (be, en-, give, show) light (-en, -ened), set on fire, shine.

Notice how the kjv can translate this light, "shine" keep this in mind.

and the shining LIGHT in verse 4 & 5 is
H216 אוֹר 'owr (ore) n-f.
1. illumination.
2. (concretely) luminary (in every sense, including lightning, happiness, etc.).
[from H215]
KJV: bright, clear, + day, light (-ning), morning, sun.
Root(s): H215

Look at the first definition of each definition, 1. to be luminous. 1. illumination. see the difference. also NOTICE, in H215 אוֹר 'owr (ore) v. the KJV can translate this LIGHT, "Shine" which in found in verse 14. but the Light in verse 4 & 5 is not or is not translate so, or can be translated as "shine". so the conclusion, the Light in verses 4 & 5 is not the same Light in verse 14, the scriptures makes that crystal Clear.

remember, I said keep definition H216 אוֹר 'owr (ore) n-f. in your mind, about "happiness", lets look at it.
1. illumination.
2. (concretely) luminary (in every sense, including lightning, happiness, etc.).
[from H215]
KJV: bright, clear, + day, light (-ning), morning, sun.

notice #2. in the second definition, "happiness", now scripture, Proverbs 8:22 "The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old." Proverbs 8:23 "I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was."Proverbs 8:24 "When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water." Proverbs 8:25 "Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:" Proverbs 8:26 "While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world." Proverbs 8:27 "When he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth:" Proverbs 8:28 "When he established the clouds above: when he strengthened the fountains of the deep:" Proverbs 8:29 "When he gave to the sea his decree, that the waters should not pass his commandment: when he appointed the foundations of the earth:" Proverbs 8:30 "Then I was by him, as one brought up with him: and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him;" Proverbs 8:31 "Rejoicing in the habitable part of his earth; and my delights were with the sons of men."

those word, "delight" and "Rejoicing " guess what they means? that's right "Happiness" the same word happiness found in definition H216 אוֹר 'owr (ore) n-f. Notice #2.
1. illumination.
2. (concretely) luminary (in every sense, including lightning, happiness, etc.).
[from H215]
KJV: bright, clear, + day, light (-ning), morning, sun.

one more, in Proverbs 8:31 "Rejoicing", another word for it..... that's right "happiness"
so without a doubt, the LIGHT in verses 4 and 5 is not natural sunlight, or physical, but the LIGHT in verses 4 & 5 is WISDOM, (WHO), meaning GOD, who made all things by, by, by, HIMSELF, just as Isaiah 44:24 clearly states. he was "ALONE", and "BY, BY, BY HIMSELF. this is Just too easy. Jesus, the wisdom and the POWER of God is the Light of the world. LISTEN TO SCRIPTURE, John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 1:2 "The same was in the beginning with God." John 1:3 "All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made." John 1:4 "In him was life; and the life was the light of men." John 1:5 "And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not." this is why he, JESUS, God separate the Light/TRUTH, Knowledge and understanding from IGNORANCE/Darkness zand without Understanding.

also, this is why 101G do not believe that the sun was shining on day 1,

My sources for this Revelation is, The Holy Spirit, as teacher, with help aide, the Holy Bible, (the King James Version), and the Mickelson's Enhanced Strong's Dictionaries of the Greek and Hebrew Testaments.

this gives us.......
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, the Almighty God.
The Wisdom of God Personified in Jesus the Christ”​
Proverbs 8:22 "The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old."
Proverbs 8:23 "I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was."
Proverbs 8:24 "When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water."
Proverbs 8:25 "Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:"
Proverbs 8:26 "While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world."
Proverbs 8:27 "When he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth:"
Proverbs 8:28 "When he established the clouds above: when he strengthened the fountains of the deep:"
Proverbs 8:29 "When he gave to the sea his decree, that the waters should not pass his commandment: when he appointed the foundations of the earth:"
Proverbs 8:30 "Then I was by him, as one brought up with him: and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him;"
Proverbs 8:31 "Rejoicing in the habitable part of his earth; and my delights were with the sons of men."

101G hope you got this, else, see ya

remember .... don't try to argue with 101G .... argue with your OWN-SELVES.....

191G.
 
Listen carefully.

Physical LIGHT vs WISDOM/Spiritual LIGHT
now there is a couple of distinction between what happen on day 1 at the beginning, and day 4 concerning "LIGHT".

#1. God divided the light from the darkness in verse 4, on the first day. (IGNORANCE/Darkness separated from TRUTH/Light), so no one has to be IGNORANT, or at least stay in it. but in verse 14 it is the sun and the moon "light" on the earth that divided the day from the night. we have two division of light/day, and darkness/night. if it was good, why divide it again? and in verse 4, it's, "LIGHT", a single designation, whereas in verse 14 it's plural.

#2. Here's the revelation,
the definition of Light in verse 4, is H216 אוֹר 'owr (ore) n-f.
1. illumination.
2. (concretely) luminary (in every sense, including lightning, happiness, etc.).
[from H215]
KJV: bright, clear, + day, light (-ning), morning, sun.

Notice that word "happiness" in the definition #2, because I'll be coming back to it.

the definition of “Light” in verse 14, the shinning light, not the object that is the source of the light, but the shining light itself is,
H215 אוֹר 'owr (ore) v.
1. to be luminous.
2. (causative) to make luminous.
{literally and metaphorically}
[a primitive root]
KJV: X break of day, glorious, kindle, (be, en-, give, show) light (-en, -ened), set on fire, shine.

Notice how the kjv can translate this light, "shine" keep this in mind.

and the shining LIGHT in verse 4 & 5 is
H216 אוֹר 'owr (ore) n-f.
1. illumination.
2. (concretely) luminary (in every sense, including lightning, happiness, etc.).
[from H215]
KJV: bright, clear, + day, light (-ning), morning, sun.
Root(s): H215

Look at the first definition of each definition, 1. to be luminous. 1. illumination. see the difference. also NOTICE, in H215 אוֹר 'owr (ore) v. the KJV can translate this LIGHT, "Shine" which in found in verse 14. but the Light in verse 4 & 5 is not or is not translate so, or can be translated as "shine". so the conclusion, the Light in verses 4 & 5 is not the same Light in verse 14, the scriptures makes that crystal Clear.

remember, I said keep definition H216 אוֹר 'owr (ore) n-f. in your mind, about "happiness", lets look at it.
1. illumination.
2. (concretely) luminary (in every sense, including lightning, happiness, etc.).
[from H215]
KJV: bright, clear, + day, light (-ning), morning, sun.

notice #2. in the second definition, "happiness", now scripture, Proverbs 8:22 "The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old." Proverbs 8:23 "I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was."Proverbs 8:24 "When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water." Proverbs 8:25 "Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:" Proverbs 8:26 "While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world." Proverbs 8:27 "When he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth:" Proverbs 8:28 "When he established the clouds above: when he strengthened the fountains of the deep:" Proverbs 8:29 "When he gave to the sea his decree, that the waters should not pass his commandment: when he appointed the foundations of the earth:" Proverbs 8:30 "Then I was by him, as one brought up with him: and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him;" Proverbs 8:31 "Rejoicing in the habitable part of his earth; and my delights were with the sons of men."

those word, "delight" and "Rejoicing " guess what they means? that's right "Happiness" the same word happiness found in definition H216 אוֹר 'owr (ore) n-f. Notice #2.
1. illumination.
2. (concretely) luminary (in every sense, including lightning, happiness, etc.).
[from H215]
KJV: bright, clear, + day, light (-ning), morning, sun.

one more, in Proverbs 8:31 "Rejoicing", another word for it..... that's right "happiness"
so without a doubt, the LIGHT in verses 4 and 5 is not natural sunlight, or physical, but the LIGHT in verses 4 & 5 is WISDOM, (WHO), meaning GOD, who made all things by, by, by, HIMSELF, just as Isaiah 44:24 clearly states. he was "ALONE", and "BY, BY, BY HIMSELF. this is Just too easy. Jesus, the wisdom and the POWER of God is the Light of the world. LISTEN TO SCRIPTURE, John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 1:2 "The same was in the beginning with God." John 1:3 "All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made." John 1:4 "In him was life; and the life was the light of men." John 1:5 "And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not." this is why he, JESUS, God separate the Light/TRUTH, Knowledge and understanding from IGNORANCE/Darkness zand without Understanding.

also, this is why 101G do not believe that the sun was shining on day 1,

My sources for this Revelation is, The Holy Spirit, as teacher, with help aide, the Holy Bible, (the King James Version), and the Mickelson's Enhanced Strong's Dictionaries of the Greek and Hebrew Testaments.

this gives us.......
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, the Almighty God.
The Wisdom of God Personified in Jesus the Christ”​
Proverbs 8:22 "The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old."
Proverbs 8:23 "I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was."
Proverbs 8:24 "When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water."
Proverbs 8:25 "Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:"
Proverbs 8:26 "While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world."
Proverbs 8:27 "When he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth:"
Proverbs 8:28 "When he established the clouds above: when he strengthened the fountains of the deep:"
Proverbs 8:29 "When he gave to the sea his decree, that the waters should not pass his commandment: when he appointed the foundations of the earth:"
Proverbs 8:30 "Then I was by him, as one brought up with him: and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him;"
Proverbs 8:31 "Rejoicing in the habitable part of his earth; and my delights were with the sons of men."

101G hope you got this, else, see ya

remember .... don't try to argue with 101G .... argue with your OWN-SELVES.....

191G.
I got it. You just get to conceptualize and spiritualize anything you want and can basically make the Bible say anything. You've just explained it all away. You know, I can do this all day because I have hundreds of examples of echad referring to a singular numerical one. The word echad is all over the Old Testament.

Let's try again since you wiggled your way out of Genesis 1:5.

The first (ECHAD) day of the month? That's the first calendar day. What's your workaround for this?

Haggai 1
1In the second year of Darius the king, in the sixth month, in the first day of the month, came the word of the LORD by Haggai the prophet unto Zerubbabel the son of Shealtiel, governor of Judah, and to Joshua the son of Josedech, the high priest, saying,
 
I got it. You just get to conceptualize and spiritualize anything you want and can basically make the Bible say anything.
Another excuse? what's wrong, definition got you? remember 101G did not publish any dictionaries.... nor wrote the bible.
Let's try again since you wiggled your way out of Genesis 1:5.
wiggled! ...... where?
The first (ECHAD) day of the month? That's the first calendar day. What's your workaround for this?
let's get educated. the term DAY is not a 24hour cycle.
H3117 יוֹם yowm (yome) n-m.
1. a day (as the warm hours).
2. (literal) from sunrise to sunset, or from one sunset to the next.
3. (figurative) a space of time defined by an associated term.
{often used adverb}
[from an unused root meaning to be hot]
KJV: age, + always, + chronicals, continually(-ance), daily, ((birth-), each, to) day, (now a, two) days (agone), + elder, X end, + evening, + (for) ever(-lasting, -more), X full, life, as (so) long as (... live), (even) now, + old, + outlived, + perpetually, presently, + remaineth, X required, season, X since, space, then, (process of) time, + as at other times, + in trouble, weather, (as) when, (a, the, within a) while (that), X whole (+ age), (full) year(-ly), + younger.

now to make this quick and simple, "The DAY of the Lord".... how long is that? 3. (figurative) a space of time defined by an associated term.`.............. (process of) time. now scripture, Psalms 90:4 "For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past, and as a watch in the night." or 2 Peter 3:8 "But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day." Hmmmm ... 3. (figurative) a space of time defined by an associated term.`.............. (process of) time.
must we say m ore?
Haggai 1
1In the second year of Darius the king, in the sixth month, in the first day of the month, came the word of the LORD by Haggai the prophet unto Zerubbabel the son of Shealtiel, governor of Judah, and to Joshua the son of Josedech, the high priest, saying,
3. (figurative) a space of time defined by an associated term.` and the definding term ... "Month". just too easy.

NOW watch this, "The day of 101G"......... (smile).. :rolleyes: YIKES!

101G.
 
Another excuse? what's wrong, definition got you? remember 101G did not publish any dictionaries.... nor wrote the bible.

wiggled! ...... where?

let's get educated. the term DAY is not a 24hour cycle.
H3117 יוֹם yowm (yome) n-m.
1. a day (as the warm hours).
2. (literal) from sunrise to sunset, or from one sunset to the next.
3. (figurative) a space of time defined by an associated term.
{often used adverb}
[from an unused root meaning to be hot]
KJV: age, + always, + chronicals, continually(-ance), daily, ((birth-), each, to) day, (now a, two) days (agone), + elder, X end, + evening, + (for) ever(-lasting, -more), X full, life, as (so) long as (... live), (even) now, + old, + outlived, + perpetually, presently, + remaineth, X required, season, X since, space, then, (process of) time, + as at other times, + in trouble, weather, (as) when, (a, the, within a) while (that), X whole (+ age), (full) year(-ly), + younger.

now to make this quick and simple, "The DAY of the Lord".... how long is that? 3. (figurative) a space of time defined by an associated term.`.............. (process of) time. now scripture, Psalms 90:4 "For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past, and as a watch in the night." or 2 Peter 3:8 "But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day." Hmmmm ... 3. (figurative) a space of time defined by an associated term.`.............. (process of) time.
must we say m ore?

3. (figurative) a space of time defined by an associated term.` and the definding term ... "Month". just too easy.

NOW watch this, "The day of 101G"......... (smile).. :rolleyes: YIKES!

101G.
So long story short... God didn't create on the first day and the first day of the month isn't the first day of the month? As I said, lay off the kool-aid. You are under a strong the delusion, even worse than the Trinitarians.
 
To rightly understand the Word of God, one must understand what part is written to the Church of God and what part is written for the learning of the Church. Every word from Genesis 1:1, to Revelation 22:21, is written for our learning. However, not all of the words from Genesis 1:1, to Revelation 22:21, are addressed to us. We must learn to distinguish not only the various people, but also the different time periods God has spoken to if we want to understand the written Word of God. The time God spoke to the children of Israel is not the same time period He has spoken to us. The time He spoke to the prophets in the time of the Old Testament is not the same time period He spoke to His Son Jesus Christ in the time of the gospels.

Administrations must be adapted to the time periods in which they are carried out. The administration with Adam before the fall was different from the one with his immediate family after the fall. The administration with Israel “under the law” was carried out on different principles from the present administration of Grace. This present administration is different from the one that will characterize the return of Christ. The administration of Judgment will be different from the one that will belong to the administration of Glory, when all things shall be gathered together in one under the headship of Christ.

We will never understand the truth of God’s Word if we neglect to rightly divide the subject matter. As far as we are concerned in this Grace administration, what happened to Israel in the Old Testament was written for our learning. If we do not rightly divide to whom it's addressed—the Jew, Gentile, or the Church of God, we will use one truth to contradict another truth, and we will use what is true for one group in contrast to what is also true for another group.

These different administrations are suited to different times because God has spoken everything to its proper time and administration. We will never understand the truth of God’s Word if we read into one administration what God tells us belongs to another administration. If we believe what God said in one administration and carry it into another administration that was on a different principle, we will be taking what is true for one time, and using it to contradict what is also true for another time. When we mix them all together, by jumbling the whole Bible together: Law, Gospel, Grace, Judgment, Glory, Jew, Gentile, and the Church of God, we will be very confused in our understanding of the truth of God’s Word.
Your first and most damaging error is to think or believe God wrote anything to non-Hebrew Gentiles or that He has covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles. He does not. Genesis to Revelation is written to His covenant people that are Abraham's seed and no other. Can you point to a covenant in the Hebrew Scripture (Gen. - Mal.) between God and non-Hebrew, non-Abrahamic Gentiles?
I have asked this question for over a year, and no one can prove God has anything worthy of His Son in non-Hebrew Gentiles. Nothing.

17 All nations (Gentiles) before him are as nothing;
And they are counted to him less than nothing, and vanity.
Isaiah 40:17.

This explains God's attitude of His enemies and Israel's enemies.

This prophecy describes God gathering His enemies against Israel, and just as He did this with Assyria and then judged them by bringing Babylonia against them, God will bring all nations (Gentiles) against His covenant people and then a trumpet sounds, and God's Holy Son descends with the armies of heaven to destroy all these nations that come against Israel.

2 For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle;
And the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and ethe women ravished;
And half of the city shall go forth into captivity,
And the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city.
3 Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations,
As when he fought in the day of battle.
4 And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives,
Which is before Jerusalem on the east,
And the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst thereof toward the east and toward the west,
And there shall be a very great valley;
Zech. 14:2–4.

This prophecy is sounded in Matthew 24 and Revelation 19-20.
It does not end well for Gentiles.
 
Your first and most damaging error is to think or believe God wrote anything to non-Hebrew Gentiles or that He has covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles. He does not. Genesis to Revelation is written to His covenant people that are Abraham's seed and no other. Can you point to a covenant in the Hebrew Scripture (Gen. - Mal.) between God and non-Hebrew, non-Abrahamic Gentiles?
I have asked this question for over a year, and no one can prove God has anything worthy of His Son in non-Hebrew Gentiles. Nothing.

17 All nations (Gentiles) before him are as nothing;
And they are counted to him less than nothing, and vanity.
Isaiah 40:17.

This explains God's attitude of His enemies and Israel's enemies.

This prophecy describes God gathering His enemies against Israel, and just as He did this with Assyria and then judged them by bringing Babylonia against them, God will bring all nations (Gentiles) against His covenant people and then a trumpet sounds, and God's Holy Son descends with the armies of heaven to destroy all these nations that come against Israel.

2 For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle;
And the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and ethe women ravished;
And half of the city shall go forth into captivity,
And the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city.
3 Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations,
As when he fought in the day of battle.
4 And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives,
Which is before Jerusalem on the east,
And the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst thereof toward the east and toward the west,
And there shall be a very great valley;
Zech. 14:2–4.

This prophecy is sounded in Matthew 24 and Revelation 19-20.
It does not end well for Gentiles.
Gentiles are not Gentiles when they are brought into the family. There are also many rules in Old Covenant Judaism for Gentiles who want to convert. Yes it is stricter, but nevertheless there are guidelines for what requirements a Gentile should meet in order to have fellowship with the Jews in the temple. Another way that came about later was through the New Covenant, in which Jesus commissioned his apostles to go forth and preach the Gospel unto all of the world. Paul understood this an described in his theology (supposed to be standard Christian theology at this point, but seems we still have contention) that Gentiles are the spiritual seed of Abraham. Are you anti-Paul?

Ephesians 3 (KJV)
6That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel: 7Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power. 8Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ; 9And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ: 10To the intent that now unto the principalities and powers in heavenly places might be known by the church the manifold wisdom of God, 11According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord: 12In whom we have boldness and access with confidence by the faith of him. 13Wherefore I desire that ye faint not at my tribulations for you, which is your glory.
 
Gentiles are not Gentiles when they are brought into the family. There are also many rules in Old Covenant Judaism for Gentiles who want to convert. Yes it is stricter, but nevertheless there are guidelines for what requirements a Gentile should meet in order to have fellowship with the Jews in the temple. Another way that came about later was through the New Covenant, in which Jesus commissioned his apostles to go forth and preach the Gospel unto all of the world. Paul understood this an described in his theology (supposed to be standard Christian theology at this point, but seems we still have contention) that Gentiles are the spiritual seed of Abraham. Are you anti-Paul?
When (and if) you were brought into the family of God did your conversion change your DNA and make you Hebrew? No, I didn't think so. A Spanish person who becomes born-again remains a Spanish person. There is no change in DNA. And if you're mentioning "Gentiles" who "want to convert" (become joined to the commonwealth of Israel that's all they were allied with. They may have joined to the commonwealth of Israel but as Gentile (non-Hebrew, non-Abrahamic) did not allow them to being in covenant since there is nothing in the Abraham Covenant promises where it is described (Genesis 12, 15, and 17) where God extended his covenant promises to non-Hebrew Gentiles. Beside this, don't forget there was also the descendants of Ishmael and Esau and although were the seed of Abraham the inheritance passed to Isaac and then Jacob and his descendants, the twelve sons/tribes of Israel.
When Christ instructed his eleven disciples to being "witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth" was because that's where the majority of Hebrews/Jews lived - in Gentile lands since out of all Hebrews alive when Nehemiah returned with a "remnant" around 522 BC to rebuild the wall of the city (Jerusalem) the "remnant" was only about 10% of all Hebrews alive at the time and the majority (90%) of Hebrews alive at the time remained in Gentile lands heavily influenced by Greek culture (Hellenized) and these Hebrews mostly were about 15-20 generations of Hebrews born and many were the mixed offspring of Hebrews and these did not grow up under a Hebrew culture but were raised as Gentiles heavily influenced by Greek culture and many males were not circumcised. This led to the Jerusalem Council in AD 50 which took up the subject of whether additionally to a Jew being born-again whether they had to also be circumcised to 'complete' their salvation. These Judaizers who joined up with circumcised born-again Jews in their church fellowships taught the brethren they also needed to be circumcised to really be saved and they taught these mixed-heritage, Gentile-raised, Hellenized Jews these things. It would have been uncalled for if these Judaizers taught non-Hebrew Gentiles they had to be circumcised because no seed of Abraham would ever think to teach Gentiles they had to be circumcised nor would the apostles and elders in Jerusalem when the held council would result in giving/instructing Gentiles to obey the Law of Moses (Acts 15:29.) Jews would have been in uproar and riots would ensue if any Jew or religious leader even talked about circumcising a Gentile or that they could come under the Law of Moses by refraining from eating meats offered to idols or fornication, etc., which was the decision the apostles and elders came to at the conclusion of the council. None of the apostles or elders would ever thing to circumcise Gentiles or teach them to obey the Law of Moses because every Jew KNEW the covenant and the inheritance was passed down each succeeding generation to only Abraham's seed and Gentiles are NOT Abraham's seed.


Ephesians 3 (KJV)
6That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel: 7Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power. 8Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ; 9And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ: 10To the intent that now unto the principalities and powers in heavenly places might be known by the church the manifold wisdom of God, 11According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord: 12In whom we have boldness and access with confidence by the faith of him. 13Wherefore I desire that ye faint not at my tribulations for you, which is your glory.
All Scripture from Genesis to Revelation was written by a Jew and Jewish Christians to and for other Jews and Jewish Christians. You are reading the New Covenant writings (Matthew to Revelation) with a Gentile mindset and that since God made no covenant with Gentiles that neither did He have any contact with them through writings either. The New Covenant writings from Matthew to Revelation were written by Saul, Matthew, Peter, etc., as they tried to make sense of the Jeremiad New Covenant he prophesied. God was doing a new time in Israel (and Jews in particular) because God was in the business of saving His covenant people the Jews. Mixed-heritage Jews of Jew-Gentile descent grew up in Gentile lands and were heavily influenced by Greek culture and it was God's intent to send messengers into Gentile lands (uttermost parts of the earth) because they needed to know one important thing: God has kept His Promise and the Prophet like unto Moses and the Holy Spirit of Promise PROMISED TO ISRAEL by Joel was sent to Israel as promised by God to and for the Jewish people. Jews called mixed heritage Jews that were the offspring of Gentiles in their history "Samaritan" and not called "Jew" in the same attitude that later mixed heritage Jews were called "Gentile" and not "Jew" by Jews.
This is God's attitude of non-Hebrew Gentiles that are NOT Abraham's seed:

17 All nations before him are as nothing;
And they are counted to him less than nothing, and vanity.
Isaiah 40:17.

God doesn't have covenant with Gentiles and salvation which is given to Hebrews through Abraham and Mosaic Covenant is never given to Gentiles. There is nothing in the Bible God ever did such a thing. Jesus was Promised to Israel and Joel prophesied the Holy Spirit of Promise also to Israel. Non-Hebrew Gentiles have never been extended any covenant with God nor has God ever promised Gentiles His Holy Spirit.

If you can post the Scripture from the Hebrew writings God made covenant with Gentiles or He promised His Spirit to Gentiles, please post your proof. But in my study, I find no covenant with Gentiles nor was God's Spirit promised to Gentiles.
 
When (and if) you were brought into the family of God did your conversion change your DNA and make you Hebrew? No, I didn't think so. A Spanish person who becomes born-again remains a Spanish person. There is no change in DNA. And if you're mentioning "Gentiles" who "want to convert" (become joined to the commonwealth of Israel that's all they were allied with. They may have joined to the commonwealth of Israel but as Gentile (non-Hebrew, non-Abrahamic) did not allow them to being in covenant since there is nothing in the Abraham Covenant promises where it is described (Genesis 12, 15, and 17) where God extended his covenant promises to non-Hebrew Gentiles. Beside this, don't forget there was also the descendants of Ishmael and Esau and although were the seed of Abraham the inheritance passed to Isaac and then Jacob and his descendants, the twelve sons/tribes of Israel.
When Christ instructed his eleven disciples to being "witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth" was because that's where the majority of Hebrews/Jews lived - in Gentile lands since out of all Hebrews alive when Nehemiah returned with a "remnant" around 522 BC to rebuild the wall of the city (Jerusalem) the "remnant" was only about 10% of all Hebrews alive at the time and the majority (90%) of Hebrews alive at the time remained in Gentile lands heavily influenced by Greek culture (Hellenized) and these Hebrews mostly were about 15-20 generations of Hebrews born and many were the mixed offspring of Hebrews and these did not grow up under a Hebrew culture but were raised as Gentiles heavily influenced by Greek culture and many males were not circumcised. This led to the Jerusalem Council in AD 50 which took up the subject of whether additionally to a Jew being born-again whether they had to also be circumcised to 'complete' their salvation. These Judaizers who joined up with circumcised born-again Jews in their church fellowships taught the brethren they also needed to be circumcised to really be saved and they taught these mixed-heritage, Gentile-raised, Hellenized Jews these things. It would have been uncalled for if these Judaizers taught non-Hebrew Gentiles they had to be circumcised because no seed of Abraham would ever think to teach Gentiles they had to be circumcised nor would the apostles and elders in Jerusalem when the held council would result in giving/instructing Gentiles to obey the Law of Moses (Acts 15:29.) Jews would have been in uproar and riots would ensue if any Jew or religious leader even talked about circumcising a Gentile or that they could come under the Law of Moses by refraining from eating meats offered to idols or fornication, etc., which was the decision the apostles and elders came to at the conclusion of the council. None of the apostles or elders would ever thing to circumcise Gentiles or teach them to obey the Law of Moses because every Jew KNEW the covenant and the inheritance was passed down each succeeding generation to only Abraham's seed and Gentiles are NOT Abraham's seed.



All Scripture from Genesis to Revelation was written by a Jew and Jewish Christians to and for other Jews and Jewish Christians. You are reading the New Covenant writings (Matthew to Revelation) with a Gentile mindset and that since God made no covenant with Gentiles that neither did He have any contact with them through writings either. The New Covenant writings from Matthew to Revelation were written by Saul, Matthew, Peter, etc., as they tried to make sense of the Jeremiad New Covenant he prophesied. God was doing a new time in Israel (and Jews in particular) because God was in the business of saving His covenant people the Jews. Mixed-heritage Jews of Jew-Gentile descent grew up in Gentile lands and were heavily influenced by Greek culture and it was God's intent to send messengers into Gentile lands (uttermost parts of the earth) because they needed to know one important thing: God has kept His Promise and the Prophet like unto Moses and the Holy Spirit of Promise PROMISED TO ISRAEL by Joel was sent to Israel as promised by God to and for the Jewish people. Jews called mixed heritage Jews that were the offspring of Gentiles in their history "Samaritan" and not called "Jew" in the same attitude that later mixed heritage Jews were called "Gentile" and not "Jew" by Jews.
This is God's attitude of non-Hebrew Gentiles that are NOT Abraham's seed:

17 All nations before him are as nothing;
And they are counted to him less than nothing, and vanity.
Isaiah 40:17.

God doesn't have covenant with Gentiles and salvation which is given to Hebrews through Abraham and Mosaic Covenant is never given to Gentiles. There is nothing in the Bible God ever did such a thing. Jesus was Promised to Israel and Joel prophesied the Holy Spirit of Promise also to Israel. Non-Hebrew Gentiles have never been extended any covenant with God nor has God ever promised Gentiles His Holy Spirit.

If you can post the Scripture from the Hebrew writings God made covenant with Gentiles or He promised His Spirit to Gentiles, please post your proof. But in my study, I find no covenant with Gentiles nor was God's Spirit promised to Gentiles.
Do you believe this or no?

Galatians 3
19Why, then, was the law given at all? It was added because of transgressions until the Seed to whom the promise referred had come. The law was given through angels and entrusted to a mediator. 20A mediator, however, implies more than one party; but God is one.

21Is the law, therefore, opposed to the promises of God? Absolutely not! For if a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would certainly have come by the law. 22But Scripture has locked up everything under the control of sin, so that what was promised, being given through faith in Jesus Christ, might be given to those who believe.

23Before the coming of this faith, we were held in custody under the law, locked up until the faith that was to come would be revealed. 24So the law was our guardian until Christ came that we might be justified by faith. 25Now that this faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian.

26So in Christ Jesus you are all children of God through faith, 27for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. 28There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. 29If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.
 
Do you believe this or no?

Galatians 3
19Why, then, was the law given at all? It was added because of transgressions until the Seed to whom the promise referred had come. The law was given through angels and entrusted to a mediator. 20A mediator, however, implies more than one party; but God is one.

21Is the law, therefore, opposed to the promises of God? Absolutely not! For if a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would certainly have come by the law. 22But Scripture has locked up everything under the control of sin, so that what was promised, being given through faith in Jesus Christ, might be given to those who believe.

23Before the coming of this faith, we were held in custody under the law, locked up until the faith that was to come would be revealed. 24So the law was our guardian until Christ came that we might be justified by faith. 25Now that this faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian.

26So in Christ Jesus you are all children of God through faith, 27for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. 28There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. 29If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.
If you read carefully (which you are not doing but regurgitating other people's bible studies, Saul is writing to Jews.
The Law was given to the children of Israel. It is the Jews that were under a "schoolmaster" not Gentiles.

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. Gal. 4:4–5.

Only the children of Israel are under the Law (schoolmaster.) Thus, THEY are of Abraham's seed and rightful heirs according to those promises.
 
If you read carefully (which you are not doing but regurgitating other people's bible studies, Saul is writing to Jews.
The Law was given to the children of Israel. It is the Jews that were under a "schoolmaster" not Gentiles.

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. Gal. 4:4–5.

Only the children of Israel are under the Law (schoolmaster.) Thus, THEY are of Abraham's seed and rightful heirs according to those promises.
Galatians 3:19-29 isn't a Bible study. It's straight scripture. Okay, I take it you don't believe it.
 
Galatians 3:19-29 isn't a Bible study. It's straight scripture. Okay, I take it you don't believe it.
I believe Scripture evidence records God having made covenant with "Abram the Hebrew" as his family line is identified by God as being from the line of Eber:

14 And Salah lived thirty years, and begat Eber: Genesis 11:14.

In the beginning God establishes good relations with a people obedient to Him and it is specific.

25 And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth: For God, said she, hath appointed me another seed instead of Abel, whom Cain slew.
26 And to Seth, to him also there was born a son; and he called his name Enos: then began men to call upon the name of the LORD. Genesis 4:25–26.

The term "call upon the LORD" may seem in English translations to be something we do in the sense of opening our mouths and calling out to God but that is not its meaning. It means "worship" and only those that are in positive relationship with God are allowed by God to be in positive relationship with God, as David said, "Blessed is the man that thou choosests and causeth to approach unto thee, that he may dwell in thy courts." No man can choose God unless God first reveals Himself and chooses the person FIRST, and such initial choosing by God is clearly in His own prerogative. Scripture even declares that a person NOT in positive relationship with God may know there is a God by evidence of some kind given of God Himself, but God does not receive nor accept "prayers" or "worship" by anyone whom God has no relationship with. It is "sin" (missing/misses the mark of the glory of God.) God rejects it. "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus" (1 Tim. 2:5.)

Now, here is your Scripture. Let's see if we can identify who Saul is writing and addressing these words in this passage to. It is clear from the text Saul is writing to Jews specifically, and to Jewish Christians in general who remained under the Law even after being born-again by the Spirit of Promise who Joel says in his "book" chapter 2 "to Israel." This is why the Holy Spirit of God is called the Spirit of Promise by several Jewish writers including Peter (Acts 2:38-39.) Clearly Saul is addressing those under the Law and the people under the Law are the Hebrew people (Jews.)

19 Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.
20 Now a mediator is not a mediator of one, but God is one.
21 Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.
22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.
23 But before faith came, we [Jews] were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our [Jews] schoolmaster to bring us [Jews] unto Christ, that we [Jews] might be justified by faith.
25 But after that faith is come, we [Jews] are no longer under a schoolmaster.
26 For ye [Jews] are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.
27 For as many of you [Jews] as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye [Jews] are all one in Christ Jesus.
29 And if ye [Jews] be Christ’s, then are ye [still Jews and] Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.
Galatians 3:19–29.

The Abraham Covenant was inherited by Isaac and then Jacob and then to Jacob's twelve sons, each son receiving the promises given to Abraham, totally and equally. THAT is what Scripture teaches and THAT is what I believe.
You, on the other hand (it's always the 'other hand' that condemn 'us') don't believe what Scripture says as it is clearly revealed above. And THAT is the difference between us.
 
I believe Scripture evidence records God having made covenant with "Abram the Hebrew" as his family line is identified by God as being from the line of Eber:

14 And Salah lived thirty years, and begat Eber: Genesis 11:14.

In the beginning God establishes good relations with a people obedient to Him and it is specific.

25 And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth: For God, said she, hath appointed me another seed instead of Abel, whom Cain slew.
26 And to Seth, to him also there was born a son; and he called his name Enos: then began men to call upon the name of the LORD. Genesis 4:25–26.

The term "call upon the LORD" may seem in English translations to be something we do in the sense of opening our mouths and calling out to God but that is not its meaning. It means "worship" and only those that are in positive relationship with God are allowed by God to be in positive relationship with God, as David said, "Blessed is the man that thou choosests and causeth to approach unto thee, that he may dwell in thy courts." No man can choose God unless God first reveals Himself and chooses the person FIRST, and such initial choosing by God is clearly in His own prerogative. Scripture even declares that a person NOT in positive relationship with God may know there is a God by evidence of some kind given of God Himself, but God does not receive nor accept "prayers" or "worship" by anyone whom God has no relationship with. It is "sin" (missing/misses the mark of the glory of God.) God rejects it. "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus" (1 Tim. 2:5.)

Now, here is your Scripture. Let's see if we can identify who Saul is writing and addressing these words in this passage to. It is clear from the text Saul is writing to Jews specifically, and to Jewish Christians in general who remained under the Law even after being born-again by the Spirit of Promise who Joel says in his "book" chapter 2 "to Israel." This is why the Holy Spirit of God is called the Spirit of Promise by several Jewish writers including Peter (Acts 2:38-39.) Clearly Saul is addressing those under the Law and the people under the Law are the Hebrew people (Jews.)

19 Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.
20 Now a mediator is not a mediator of one, but God is one.
21 Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.
22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.
23 But before faith came, we [Jews] were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our [Jews] schoolmaster to bring us [Jews] unto Christ, that we [Jews] might be justified by faith.
25 But after that faith is come, we [Jews] are no longer under a schoolmaster.
26 For ye [Jews] are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.
27 For as many of you [Jews] as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye [Jews] are all one in Christ Jesus.
29 And if ye [Jews] be Christ’s, then are ye [still Jews and] Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.
Galatians 3:19–29.

The Abraham Covenant was inherited by Isaac and then Jacob and then to Jacob's twelve sons, each son receiving the promises given to Abraham, totally and equally. THAT is what Scripture teaches and THAT is what I believe.
You, on the other hand (it's always the 'other hand' that condemn 'us') don't believe what Scripture says as it is clearly revealed above. And THAT is the difference between us.
Very well. The Bible is consistent about calling on YHWH, but never once says to call upon Jesus.
 
Very well. The Bible is consistent about calling on YHWH, but never once says to call upon Jesus.
That was the "mystery" Saul said was hidden before the world begun.

25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,
Romans 16:25.
 
Back
Top Bottom