It doesn't have to, atpollard. The word subservient is an adjective that describes the position of one person in relationship to another. I used an adjective in my OP, at question #2.
Britannica Dictionary definition of SUBSERVIENT
1 : very willing or too willing to obey someone else
2 : less important than something or someone else
It matters because Jesus was “willing to obey” the Father, but was never “less important”.
Since the word “subservient” did not appear in scripture, it was impossible to address which definition YOU had in mind without actual scripture references … thus my request.
You did not answer my question (which was itself an answer to your question):
- In what way are wives called to be “subservient” to their husbands?
- Willing to obey?
- Less important?
- Is it possible that God the Son is called to something similar?
Are you going to argue that Jesus didn't make it clear that he's in a lower position aka subservient from Jehovah the Father? Notice Jesus' own words below.
No, I will acknowledge Jesus submissive attitude towards the Father. Thank you for the specific verses that makes it easier to have a starting point for a conversation.
"So Jesus said to them, “When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am he, and that I do nothing on my own authority, but speak just as the Father taught me." (John 8:28 -- English Standard Version)
This strikes at the heart of “submission”. I have heard submission described as “a sub-mission”; commitment to a course of action (your mission) whose focus and goal is the advancement of some “greater mission”. This is what we see in the life of Jesus. His every word and deed was set upon the goal of not advancing some personal mission, but of advancing the plan of GOD (all of God - Father, Word and Spirit).
As the Bible itself describes it (far better than me):
Philippians 2:1-11 [ESV]
So if there is any encouragement in Christ, any comfort from love, any participation in the Spirit, any affection and sympathy, complete my joy by being of the same mind, having the same love, being in full accord and of one mind. Do nothing from selfish ambition or conceit, but in humility count others more significant than yourselves. Let each of you look not only to his own interests, but also to the interests of others. Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
"You heard that I said to you, ‘I am going away, and I am coming to you.’ If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced because I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I." (John 14:28 -- New American Standard Bible)
Given all John said in John 1 (among other places), one has to ask in what sense the Father is “greater”? You have assumed that the Father is God and Jesus is “not God” … yet everyone claimed Jesus was God …
- John claimed it in his prologue.
- Jesus claimed it through references to “I AM” and the Daniel “Son of Man” (a divine figure in the vision).
- The Jews that wanted to stone Jesus recognized his claims to being God (that is why they were trying to stone him).
- The High Priest recognized Jesus claim to divinity at his trial and declared no further proof of blasphemy was needed.
- The Centurion at the crucifixion recognized Jesus divinity.
- Thomas proclaimed Jesus divinity at his resurrection.
Given the plethora of evidence that JESUS IS GOD, in what sense is the Father greater than the Son?
(Since there clearly is some way that the Father was greater or Jesus would not have said so.)
However, it is NOT because the Father is God and the Son is not God.
Scripture is clear on that.
"About the ninth hour, Jesus called out with a loud voice, saying: “Eʹli, Eʹli, laʹma sa·bach·thaʹni?” that is, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Matthew 27:46 -- New World Translation)
New Word Translation, huh?
Well, setting aside the questionable translation, Jesus made that statement hanging from a cross shortly before his death.
[
quick fact about crucifixions, the position forces air into your lungs, but makes it hard to exhale so the victim eventually suffocates. To exhale, you need to pull yourself up by the hands and feet, sending extreme pain through the nerve bundles that were nailed through in those places.]
As a result of the crucifixion, Jesus was physically capable of making only short statements and every breath and statement caused extreme pain. This was Jesus last “sermon” and both a prophesy and condemnation to those assembled. Jesus was quoting the first few words of Psalm 22:
Psalm 22:1-2 [ESV]
1 To the choirmaster: according to The Doe of the Dawn. A Psalm of David. My God, my God, why have you forsaken me? Why are you so far from saving me, from the words of my groaning? 2 O my God, I cry by day, but you do not answer, and by night, but I find no rest.
I suggest reading the Psalm and see how accurately it predicted the events of the crucifixion. Jesus’ audience would have memorized all the Psalms as a child and sung them regularly as an adult. They would have immediately recognized Psalm 22 and recalled every word from memory. Jesus was pointing to the fact that these events were unfolding right before their eyes.
Note especially verse 24: Psalm 22:24 [ESV]
For he has not despised or abhorred the affliction of the afflicted, and he has not hidden his face from him, but has heard, when he cried to him.
Jesus did not remain in the tomb!
