So much effort to make a point, and I am not sure what point you are making. I quoted NKJV to avoid archaic language of KJV while attempting as close as possible to a translation where people would NOT argue over the translation.
I'm sorry A....I believe that YOU brought up the word MEN.
I stated that whether it's MEN or PEOPLE it makes no difference to what John 12:32 means.
My only point was the one I made … “myself” in John 12:32 was “Jesus”, so the claim in John 12:32 is that “all” would be drawn to “Jesus”.
By arguing for [men] to be inserted by the translators instead of [people], are you attempting to make a point that “only men and not women” will be drawn? That did not seem to be your point, so I have no idea why you made such a big deal over [people] vs [men]. It felt like you just wanted to CORRECT me on something that was nothing.
I said whether it said MEN or PEOPLE made no difference.
I don't even like discussing words.
We seem to have enough problems between we Christians to not also have to discuss words.
Perhaps you could clarify what point you were trying to make, because I did not follow it.
Romans 1:18-20 speaks of a general knowledge of “a god” … that He exists … and limited data on His eternal attributes. That is what Romans 1 says. That is not the same as knowledge of Jesus lifted up (crucified) to draw “all” to Jesus (as John 12:32 speaks of).
OK I'll try again....
God always existed...unseen but He still made Himself be known by mankind. He always has revealed Himself in one way or other. Some persons look up at the stars and instinctively know that something greater than them made them. Some people wonder how the universe came into existance. They know there's a superior being to themselves...that would be God.
Jesus is God. Now God has a face and we can see Him and He is real to more persons and they can know about Him and learn about Him and choose to obey Him or not,,,believe in Him or not.
Jesus said that if He is lifted up He will draw all men to Himself.
How does this happen? With love. People love Jesus because of the sacrifice He made to atone for their sins.
This is like the difference between the Old (Mosaic) Covenant and the New Covenant.
God must still be believed to exist. (Hebrews 10). He must still be obeyed. (John 3)
But now we can SEE Jesus and have a solid example of who God is and we know whom we are trusting in
a sense that we humans can better understand.
In the OC the Holy Spirit still existed but He did not indwell man.
In the NC the Holy Spirit indwells man and he is empowered in a way that did not exist in the OC.
(speaking generally of course).
So Jesus said He would draw all men to Himself...Jews and Gentiles.
By revelation.
For this reason He sent the Apostles on the Great Commission...so that His name can be known by all the world...at least those who can hear about Him.
So the knowledge that there is an eternal God and you are worshiping a man-made idol is enough knowledge to condemn and earn the anger of God, but it is not enough knowledge to draw one to the Crucified and Resurrected Jesus Christ as their savior. Romans 1 does not fulfill John 12.
Are you saying no one was saved before Jesus?
I've already asked this and you haven't replied.
I don't understand YOUR point.
Jesus was ALWAYS the Savior.
From the beginning of time.
Jesus died for ALL MEN, for all sins, past, present and future.
I keep hearing from the reformed/calvinists that there are billions of persons that have never heard of Jesus and so are lost.
Romans 1 rejects this statement.
Jesus is the visible God...but God ALWAYS existed and His rules always existed.
I also posted Romans 2.....man will be judged by his conscience in the absence of the word.
The argument has been made by others (not by me) that John 12:32 is a claim by Jesus that after his crucifixion (he is lifted up), that every person without exception will be drawn to Jesus. This is offered to refute Jesus’ clear statement in John 6:44 that “no one can come to him unless drawn by the Father” … by arguing that “everyone without exception” is drawn.
God has ALWAYS drawn man to Himself.
When a person comes to believe in God...Father "gives" that person to Jesus for salvation.
It's Jesus that is the savior...
at any time in history.
It's Jesus that saves.
John 6:44 The Father draws all men....Romans 1
John 12:32 Jesus draws all men.
Now YOU believe John 6:44 means that God only draws those that will be saved.
But IF that is what DRAW means...that the Father purposefully draws (drags) persons to Himself...
then yes...
John 12:32 would be teacing universalsim and we know that this is not biblical.
So DRAW must mean something else.
It means to ATTRACT, in both John 6:44 and John 12:32.
Accepting John 12:32 as teaching that every person without exception will be (is) drawn to Jesus after his crucifixion … to accept or reject the salvation Jesus offers … I want to know how Itzcoatl (a person born 1400 years after Jesus was crucified) was drawn to Jesus to make his salvation choice?
Why is it such a hard question?
Is EVERYONE WITHOUT EXCEPTION drawn to Jesus or not?
Is Itzcoatl someone, and part of everyone?
Was Itzcoatl drawn to Jesus? How?
This Itz person did not know Jesus.
But he still could have known about God.
Is Jesus God or not?
I and the Father are One.
If a person believes in Father, he also believes in the Son, and V V.
Jesus stated this.
John 14:11
11“Believe me: I am in my Father and my Father is in me.
I am saying nothing. I quoted the Apostle Paul and he said what he said.
Feel free to interpret it any way you want.
All I am saying is that Itzcoatl died before the “beautiful feet” reached the Americas.
Sure, I agree with Romans 1.
Was Itzcoatl drawn to Jesus? How?
I agree. I also believe …
Romans 9:15-16 [NKJV] For He says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whomever I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whomever I will have compassion." So then [it is] not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy.
So God is free to show mercy on anyone that He pleases (God certainly does not need my permission).
However, the question from John 12:32 remains (unanswered):
Was Itzcoatl drawn to Jesus? How?
Men have NOT always known about and been drawn to Jesus. That is the issue that impacts correctly understanding John 12:32.
Jesus makes God real in the eyes of men that observe Him (Jesus).
Men have always known about God.
We either believe the NT or we don't.
If it states that Jesus will draw all men to Himself, then it must be true.
Otherwise, why read the NT?
If you can reconcile John 6:44 with John 12:32...
in a different way...please do so.