Paul and Peter both speak of the fate of those who do not obey the gospel (Rom 10:16; 2 Thess 1:8; 1 Pet 4:17). That means, or certainly implies, that there is a requirement to obey the gospel. What do you think that might be? Just legalism injected into the gospel? You can call repenting, confessing and being baptized for the forgiveness of sin and to receive the gift of the Holy Spirit heresy if you want; but you need to be really, really careful about that. Is believing in the gospel legalism injected into the gospel also? You remember, I hope, that Jesus said believing in Him is a work which means, of course, that faith is a work. It is not a work of law that Paul spoke against, but it is a work.
Romans 10:16 says nothing about the fate of those who do not obey the gospel. ("However, they did not all heed the good news; for Isaiah say, 'Lord, who has believed our report?')"
2 Thess. 1:8 does speak of the retribution to those who do not know God and do not obey the gospel of Jesus Christ.
As I have repeatedly said, I have never discouraged anyone from obeying Jesus, by getting baptized. In fact, I encourage that. The legalism is insisting that water baptism saves you - it does NOT. The legalism is going beyond what God says about baptism - making it a requirement for salvation. It is NOT. The legalism is changing the words of Mark 16:16 to read: He who has believed and has NOT been baptized shall be LOST. That is adding words and changing words in that verse and that is what you preach.
I never once called those things heresy. You're putting words into my mouth, just like you inject new words into Mark 16:16 and YOU need to be really, really careful about that. That's what makes your belief heretical.
Once again, I never said that believing in the gospel is legalism. I said that changing the requirements of the gospel for salvation IS LEGALISM. Requiring more from people than even God requires is legalism, which you and your ilk do.
Obviously, you do not know how to properly interpret Jesus' words - which may be why you are in a heresy to begin with. When He said, "If your hand (foot or eye) causes you to stumble, cut it off ..." was He speaking literally? Of course not. He did not expect us to cut our hands (feet, or eye) off, when we use them to sin. If He did, we would all have no hands, no feet and no eyes. Rather, He was making it clear that it really wasn't our hands, feet, or eyes, that cause us to sin - it was our hearts.
The same principle applies here. Jesus is not literally calling believing in Him - work. He knew, even as we should know, that believing is NOT a work. Rather Jesus is affirming that the "work" that God approves of, to be saved, is really NO work at all - it is believing in Jesus. THEN, AFTER WE DO THAT and after we're saved/born again, we are commanded to be zealous for good deeds, starting with water baptism. - Titus 2:14
You need to be able to discern when Jesus is speaking literally or figuratively or hyperbolically. He also uses what is called a "double negative". He speaks in ALL of those ways at different times.
Here's another example in that same passage in John 6:27. Jesus is speaking here: "Do not work for the food that perishes, but for the food that endures to eternal life, ..."
So if we take that LITERALLY, then we ALL need to stop working for food, right? Wrong, obviously Jesus is not saying that, He is using a "double negative" here. He is really saying, Do not only work for the food that perishes, but also for the food that endures to eternal life, ...