Are Christians Today Required to Keep the Law of Moses?

[jeremiah1five]

Nothing flawed about it.
Give a passage that teaches one can be saved by keeping or binding the law of Moses on new testament Christians?

I never said that. But what I did say was that the Law pointed/directed Jews to identify their Messiah and King because the Law prophesied and presented MOST about the Anointed One so that Jews could identify Him when He appeared.

23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.
Galatians 3:22–25.

Before "Faith" came, meaning the Holy Spirit of Promise PROMISED TO ISRAEL by Joel (Joel 2:27-32) for the Holy Spirit is Faith Personified. Given this along with the words of Jesus in Galatians 2:16 identifies that Jews are saved by the Faith of Jesus Christ who obeyed and trusted in the Father without fail in all things, even going to His death on the cross. The Law was not given to Gentiles. It was given to the children of Israel in the desert with Moses serving as mediator of that covenant.

5 Now therefore, if ye will obey my voice indeed, and keep my covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto me above all people: for all the earth is mine:
6 And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel.
Exodus 19:5–6.

These words of covenant were spoken by Moses TO the children of Israel - NOT TO GENTILES.

Some aspects of the Law of Moses were written or carved on stone so the Jews would be able to obey the LORD outwardly. But when Faith appeared who is the Holy Spirit, who is also the total Law of Moses and THAT Law which God told Jeremiah He would put in their inward parts, He did this through the Finished Word of His Son, Jesus Christ, and NOW and since the first century God saves a Jews who is directed by the Law of Moses to IDENTIFY His or her Messiah, Lord, and King by the various implements of the Tabernacle. THIS was the purpose of the Law. It was to guide and direct and identify for the Jew the identity and Person of Christ so that when He did appear they could recognize Him in order to be saved BY Him.

 

[jeremiah1five]

Deuteronomy 27:26
‘Cursed is the one who does not confirm all the words of this law by observing them.’ “And all the people shall say, ‘Amen!’ ”

Galatians 3:10-14

For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.” But that no one is justified by the law in the sight of God is evident, for “the just shall live by faith​

James 2:10
For whoever shall keep the whole law, and yet stumble in one point, he is guilty of all.

Gods requirment of the law is perfection. If you are not perfect. You have not kept the law

THIS was the sole purpose of Jesus the Christ, to obey perfectly every command of God which when performed perfectly in His life with perfect faith, God honored Jesus' faith performed in the stead of an elect person (Hebrew) in order for that person to be saved. And this happened on Pentecost, 50 days after Passover and the same day Jesus died on His cross.

Dead men have no faith. Their faith along with the person is "dead in trespasses and sins." (Eph. 2:1.)

And because ALL MEN - speaking only about Hebrews - were dead in trespasses and sins they had no faith that God could honor for if they distrust God in any ONE thing they have failed God in ALL things.

Jews are saved by the Faith of Jesus the Christ. It was His perfect Faith in His Father that the Father honored and by which anyone is saved. Substitutional atonement.

The Law of Moses guided, directed, and identified the Christ so that when He did appear the people could recognize Him as the Son of David and the Lord Jesus the Christ.

 

[jeremiah1five]

You contradict yourself which shows you are confused.



What textbook are you teaching from?

Exactly, my answers and teaching is textbook. Bible.

Look at the text, genius. It says "IN HIS FLESH."

Do you even understand what that means?

15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; Ephesians 2:15.

So, tell me, wise one, what does it mean (Jesus) "abolished IN HIS FLESH the enmity...?"

What does that mean?

 

[Eternally-Grateful]

THIS was the sole purpose of Jesus the Christ, to obey perfectly every command of God which when performed perfectly in His life with perfect faith, God honored Jesus' faith performed in the stead of an elect person (Hebrew) in order for that person to be saved. And this happened on Pentecost, 50 days after Passover and the same day Jesus died on His cross.

Jesus told the thief on the cross. today you will be with me in paradise.

Jesus took everyone sins on his body. No one will be in heaven apart from Jesus fulfilling the law. and being our sacrifice

Dead men have no faith. Their faith along with the person is "dead in trespasses and sins." (Eph. 2:1.)

If they have no faith. they are still dead.

And because ALL MEN - speaking only about Hebrews - were dead in trespasses and sins they had no faith that God could honor for if they distrust God in any ONE thing they have failed God in ALL things.

No.

All men mean all men..

There is no jew or greek. they are all dead. in adam all die.

Jews are saved by the Faith of Jesus the Christ. It was His perfect Faith in His Father that the Father honored and by which anyone is saved. Substitutional atonement.

No. they are saved by Grace through faith..

The Law of Moses guided, directed, and identified the Christ so that when He did appear the people could recognize Him as the Son of David and the Lord Jesus the Christ.

 

[jeremiah1five]

Jesus told the thief on the cross. today you will be with me in paradise.

Yes, He did.

Jesus took everyone sins on his body. No one will be in heaven apart from Jesus fulfilling the law. and being our sacrifice

Did the animal sacrifice offered under the Law to atone yearly for the sins of the children of Israel also atone for the sins of Gentiles who were NOT under the Law?
If so, post the Scripture.

If they have no faith. they are still dead.

Spiritually dead, physically, and soulfully alive.

No.

No, what.

All men mean all men..

There are 39 "books" in the Hebrew Scripture. Exactly where does God make a covenant with Gentiles and tell me his or her name.

There is no jew or greek. they are all dead. in adam all die.

Greek does not mean Gentile. It means "Hellenized" as in Hellenized Jews, Jews who grew up in Gentile land heavily influenced by Greek culture for about 29-35 generations of Jews born from the Assyrian Conquest to when Jesus was crucified. These Jews were assimilated into Greek culture having lost their Hebrew heritage. Saul addresses them in Ephesians among other places:

11 Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:
13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
Ephesians 2:11–13.

No. they are saved by Grace through faith..

Jesus' faith is a grace. It is a gift. It is Jesus' faith the Father honored since Jesus was the only man to obey perfectly the Father's commands under the Law.

 

[Eternally-Grateful]

Yes, He did.

Did the animal sacrifice offered under the Law to atone yearly for the sins of the children of Israel also atone for the sins of Gentiles who were NOT under the Law?
If so, post the Scripture.

Heb 10: 10 For the law, having a shadow of the good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with these same sacrifices, which they offer continually year by year, make those who approach perfect. 2 For then would they not have ceased to be offered? For the worshipers, once ]purified, would have had no more consciousness of sins. 3 ;But in those sacrifices there is a reminder of sins every year. 4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins.

Spiritually dead, physically, and soulfully alive.

Yet spiritually dead. condemned. headed to hell. satan is their father. no relationship with God., a barrier placed between God and man.

No, what.

No. Your hebrew only argument is wrong

There are 39 "books" in the Hebrew Scripture. Exactly where does God make a covenant with Gentiles and tell me his or her name.

God made multiple covenants in scripture. One to Abraham (who was not a child of Israel. but the father of many nations) was a worldwide covenant made through his hear.. that through his seed (Christ) All nations (gentiles included) would be blessed.

Israel failed in her mission to be a light to the world and draw gentiles to Christ for the most part.. they will succeed in the mission come the future.

Greek does not mean Gentile. It means "Hellenized" as in Hellenized Jews, Jews who grew up in Gentile land heavily influenced by Greek culture for about 29-35 generations of Jews born from the Assyrian Conquest to when Jesus was crucified. These Jews were assimilated into Greek culture having lost their Hebrew heritage. Saul addresses them in Ephesians among other places:

11 Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:
13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
Ephesians 2:11–13.

Jesus' faith is a grace. It is a gift. It is Jesus' faith the Father honored since Jesus was the only man to obey perfectly the Father's commands under the Law.

yawn

You have Hebrew on your mind.

God sent Jonah to a hebrew nation to get them to repent.

God loves all. not just jews..

 

[civic]

Your error is that you take textbook answers and try to pass them off as sound, Biblical, doctrine.
You read the Hebrew Scriptures authored by Hebrews to and for other Hebrews, such as Moses wrote the Pentateuch, which is a history of the creation of man and from man He makes covenant with a man named "Abram the Hebrew" (Gen. 14:13) and with His Hebrew seed (Gen. 17:7), and read it with a Gentile mindset. This will lead to error.
The original Church are the children of Israel in the desert at the time of Moses when the Tabernacle was built and God gave His Laws - especially the Levitical Law - for sacrifice and worship of God.

25 My praise shall be of thee in the great congregation:
I will pay my vows before them that fear him.
Psalms 22:25.

The "Great Congregation" as everyone knows is a "Church." The word "church" is the Greek: "ekklesia" which means "called out [ones]" and that's exactly what God did when He "called out" his people out of Egypt. It is also used of Jesus when as a baby and escaped to Egypt, God "called out" His Son and returned Him to Israel after the enemies that sought his death were dead.

13 And there assembled at Jerusalem much people to keep the feast of unleavened bread in the second month, a very great congregation. 2 Chronicles 30:13.

It is also fulfilling prophecy in Hosea made of the Son whom God sent into Egypt and later "called [Him] out" after His enemies were dead.
The Prophecy:

11 When Israel was a child, then I loved him,
And called my son out of Egypt.
Hosea 11.

The Fulfillment:
15 And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son. Matthew 2:15.

Thus, on both accounts the word merely means "called out" and God did both, "calling out" the Hebrews out of Egypt and "calling out" His Son out of Egypt when He was a baby under His parents protection. It refers to both the children of Israel and God's Son. Nowhere in the Old Testament does it ever refer to Gentiles. You are adding to the Bible meanings and things not contained in the text..

That's confusing. Why not just use the literal for something literal? The "middle wall separation" was the separation and prejudice of the Hebrews against mixed-race Hebrews, such as Samaritans:

9 Then saith the woman of Samaria unto him, How is it that thou, being a Jew, askest drink of me, which am a woman of Samaria? for the Jews have no dealings with the Samaritans. John 4:9.

Every ethnicity in the world looks down upon mixed-race peoples of their race for it divides the loyalty of the person between two people. A person who is born of two Mexican parents is seen by other Mexicans as "bona-fide" while a mixed-race Mexican with a Spanish (Spain) parent is prejudiced against by Mexicans who are full blood being that Spanish Conquistadors invaded and warred with Mexico back in the day. Samaritans were mixed-race Hebrews mostly of the offspring of Joseph who had an Egyptian wife and two recorded sons in Genesis: Manassas and Ephraim. They also intermingled with the ten northern kingdom tribes and were settled in Samaria - both the capital and the region - as Samaria was the capital of the ten northern kingdom tribes of Israel after the death of Solomon.

The first Jewish Temple was built by Solomon at a time when Israel was a united kingdom. The Second Temple built by Herod contained a "Court of the Gentiles" which was for the mixed-race Jews separated for their use after the Assyrian and Babylonian Conquests of 722 and 586 BC, respectively. THIS was the "middle wall separation" referred to by Saul in his letter. During Solomon's reign the people were united in politics and in blood. After the Exile (Diaspora) Herod had an area squared off for use by mixed-race Hebrews with Gentile parentage. Jews saw their mixed-race brethren and neighbors as "second-class" citizens, which is captured by the woman at the well's statement that Jews had no dealings with "Samaritans" (mixed-race Jews.)

Learn your Bible and get rid of those Gentile mindset tjeology books. God made NO COVENANT with non-Hebrew Gentiles. NONE.

As clarified above, the "Court of the Gentiles" was added by Herod (who was not a king but a Roman-installed puppet.) THIS is the "middle wall separation" that Saul mentions in his letter. It was a reality and remembrance of Israel's conquest and Exile by both the Assyrians and the Babylonians ion 722 and 586 BC, respectively. These mixed-race Jews were mentioned by Jesus as the "other flock"

15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.
16 And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd. John 10:15–16.

The Old Testament does not ever refer to any Gentiles as "sheep." The "sheep" are always referred to in the OT as Israel - NOT GENTILES. Your theology is tainted by Gentile-induced theology that has no biblical basis for God made no covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles. NONE.

Provide Scripture that says a Gentile "caught beyond this dividing wall" was killed. Provide me an example.
I know you can't so what you are doing is adding to the Bible things not there.

The New Covenant is described and prophesied by Jeremiah in 31:31-34.
Please read this prophecy and show me where Gentiles are included in this covenant.

The Law of "Christ"" IS the Mosaic Law. Simply put, the word "Christ" is not Jesus' last name but it is the Hebrew word "Messias" translated into Greek "Messias" and into our English "Messiah." It's original meaning is "Anointed" and it is prophetically interpreted and assigned to Israel's prophesied "Anointed One" that was prophesied in the Law as a "Prophet like unto Moses" that should come.
I don't see how you can include non-Hebrew Gentiles into the New Covenant when non-Hebrew Gentiles are not even included in the Abraham and Mosaic Covenants.
But you can prove your point if you post the Scripture that records God making covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles.

The Law is necessary in order for Jews to recognize their Messiah and King for the Law speaks most about who this person is to be so that when He does arrive Israel can identify Him as they did ion the first century when Jesus arrived the first time. This is why Saul says:

23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
Galatians 3:22–24.

Saul says this because Moses said most about Israel's future Deliverer, Messiah, and King. And it will again be used in the future by Jews to recognize their King when He return s a second time. It wasn't that Jews rejected Jesus when He came the first time. Israel was deliberately "blinded by God" so that only those who were ordained to know of Him would recognize Him such as His disciples and multitudes of Jews who sat at His feet to learn and followed His relentlessly.

The Law is used by God to lead a person to Christ (cause them to recognize Him so that they can be saved by Him.) The Law doesn't save. But it is used by God to lead a Jew to Christ so that by recognizing their Messiah and King can be saved. God only allowed certain people to recognize Him (Jesus) the first time He came as Jesus says below:

27 All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him. Matthew 11:27.

13 Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand.
14 And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive:
15 For this people’s heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them. Matthew 13:13–15.

17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-jona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven. Matthew 16:17.

10 And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables?
11 He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given. Matthew 13:10–11.

10 And when he was alone, they that were about him with the twelve asked of him the parable.
11 And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables: Mark 4:10–11.

God controls who is to receive salvation and who will not. Salvation is OF THE LORD (Jonah 2:9.)

Are you saying only Jews can be saved today and not gentiles ?

 

[jeremiah1five]

Heb 10: 10 For the law, having a shadow of the good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with these same sacrifices, which they offer continually year by year, make those who approach perfect. 2 For then would they not have ceased to be offered? For the worshipers, once ]purified, would have had no more consciousness of sins. 3 ;But in those sacrifices there is a reminder of sins every year. 4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins.

Yet spiritually dead. condemned. headed to hell. satan is their father. no relationship with God., a barrier placed between God and man.

What you hold to is something called antisemitism, a hatred for the Jews, and taken to a deeper extreme, a hatred for Christ.

There is only ONE place in all the Old Testament where a New Covenant is revealed to the children of Israel and it is found prophesied by Jeremiah in 31:31-34 and nowhere does Jeremiah say Gentiles are included in this cobenant.

No. Your hebrew only argument is wrong

God made multiple covenants in scripture. One to Abraham (who was not a child of Israel. but the father of many nations) was a worldwide covenant made through his hear.. that through his seed (Christ) All nations (gentiles included) would be blessed.

I agree there are multiple covenant promises made by God to individual Jews and Hebrews but nowhere does God make any covenant promises to non-Hebrew Gentiles. You are adding to the Bible things that are not there revealed by the Spirit, who is the Author of the Old Testament.

Israel failed in her mission to be a light to the world and draw gentiles to Christ for the most part.. they will succeed in the mission come the future.

yawn

You have Hebrew on your mind.

God sent Jonah to a hebrew nation to get them to repent.

God loves all. not just jews..

In one generation, God eventually destroyed Nineveh and the non-Hebrews of that nation, burying them so deep in the sand that we have tom dig to locate where their city once existed.

God does not destroy utterly those He loves.

Sorry, but you're adding to the Bible. If you do it once, you'll do it again, and again.

Sorry, but I find your claim to Christ questionable to hold His Word so lightly as a means to input your own personal beliefs into the text.

 

[jeremiah1five]

Are you saying only Jews can be saved today and not gentiles ?

Hello brother.

This is true and is without question the facts of the Old Testament, that God saves through covenant, and the covenant begins with Abram the Hebrew (Gen. 14:13) in Genesis 12, 15, and 17. I am saying there is no covenant in the Hebrew Scripture between God and non-Hebrew Gentiles. I find a covenant between Abram from the family of Eber, from which we get "Hebrew" as a word etymology and study. Part of this covenant God made with Abram included this covenant extended to his promised child, and then when the realization of these promises were unfulfilled, Jacob was heir of those promises. When he died without seeing fulfillment the covenant was inherited by Jacob's sons, and it continued even to Jesus bar Joseph, whom Matthew and Luke identify through descendancy as a Jew from the tribe of Judah born without a human father, but still a descendant of David, a king.

I am saying that I find no covenant in the Old Testament between God and non-Hebrew Gentiles as there is covenant between God and Abram, and later, his seed, a people called the children of Israel.

I am saying that nowhere in the Mosaic Covenant are there Gentiles included under the Law of Moses, which included the Social Law - of which the children of Israel lived under - the Moral Law, and the Ceremonial Law which contains no reference the high priest ever slaying an animal for the sins of the Gentiles. I am saying that Jesus Christ came not to destroy the Law -m which includes changing the Law written on stone and that in fulfilling the Mosaic Law He died only for the Hebrew people born of Abram and Sarai.

But I also say that twice before Christ's arrival God scattered His people the Jews among Gentiles through the Assyrian and Babylonian conquest of 722 BC and 586 BC, respectively. I am saying that in this Exile called "Diaspora" Jews intermingled for 29-35 generations with Gentiles and mixed-race Hebrews of Gentile parentage were born in the hundreds of thousands, and that by virtue of being still Abram's seed, that these mixed-race Hebrews of Gentile parentage are STILL posing Abram's DNA no matter the dilution and that as his seed are still before God received as his seed and heirs according to the promise.

We are all to some extent the children of that Diaspora and from where I stand this is the ONLY WAY a non-Hebrew can be saved and that is by having at least ONE Hebrew parent in their ancestry.

Months ago, I asked a simple question of how far anyone at this site can trace their ancestry and no one can go beyond the 1500s AD (one person claimed this.) But I find record that God scattered His people into Gentile lands and no doubt we have Samaritans who are ancestors of the ten northern kingdom tribes - along with Ephraim and Manassas, sons of Joseph. But I find no record of the two southern kingdom tribes and ancestor of Gentiles, that is, unless "Gentiles" in the New Testament are them. No Jew (Saul) would ever seek to circumcise any Gentiles nor to compel them to obedience to the Law of Moses (Acts 15.)

If God made covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles, I am sure we would know his name in Scripture, just as we find a covenant with Abram by name, and other personal covenant promises (David) by name as well. There is none.
Who on this planet can trace their ancestry to the 700s BC? No one. Jews claim this and I give them benefit of the doubt. How else can we identify Israel's Savior, Deliverer, Messiah, and King?

If God made covenant with any non-Hebrew Gentile, please provide the Scripture and tell me his name. But in my studies of the Old Testament, I find no such covenant.
Do you?

 

[civic]

Hello brother.

This is true and is without question the facts of the Old Testament, that God saves through covenant, and the covenant begins with Abram the Hebrew (Gen. 14:13) in Genesis 12, 15, and 17. I am saying there is no covenant in the Hebrew Scripture between God and non-Hebrew Gentiles. I find a covenant between Abram from the family of Eber, from which we get "Hebrew" as a word etymology and study. Part of this covenant God made with Abram included this covenant extended to his promised child, and then when the realization of these promises were unfulfilled, Jacob was heir of those promises. When he died without seeing fulfillment the covenant was inherited by Jacob's sons, and it continued even to Jesus bar Joseph, whom Matthew and Luke identify through descendancy as a Jew from the tribe of Judah born without a human father, but still a descendant of David, a king.

I am saying that I find no covenant in the Old Testament between God and non-Hebrew Gentiles as there is covenant between God and Abram, and later, his seed, a people called the children of Israel.

I am saying that nowhere in the Mosaic Covenant are there Gentiles included under the Law of Moses, which included the Social Law - of which the children of Israel lived under - the Moral Law, and the Ceremonial Law which contains no reference the high priest ever slaying an animal for the sins of the Gentiles. I am saying that Jesus Christ came not to destroy the Law -m which includes changing the Law written on stone and that in fulfilling the Mosaic Law He died only for the Hebrew people born of Abram and Sarai.

But I also say that twice before Christ's arrival God scattered His people the Jews among Gentiles through the Assyrian and Babylonian conquest of 722 BC and 586 BC, respectively. I am saying that in this Exile called "Diaspora" Jews intermingled for 29-35 generations with Gentiles and mixed-race Hebrews of Gentile parentage were born in the hundreds of thousands, and that by virtue of being still Abram's seed, that these mixed-race Hebrews of Gentile parentage are STILL posing Abram's DNA no matter the dilution and that as his seed are still before God received as his seed and heirs according to the promise.

We are all to some extent the children of that Diaspora and from where I stand this is the ONLY WAY a non-Hebrew can be saved and that is by having at least ONE Hebrew parent in their ancestry.

Months ago, I asked a simple question of how far anyone at this site can trace their ancestry and no one can go beyond the 1500s AD (one person claimed this.) But I find record that God scattered His people into Gentile lands and no doubt we have Samaritans who are ancestors of the ten northern kingdom tribes - along with Ephraim and Manassas, sons of Joseph. But I find no record of the two southern kingdom tribes and ancestor of Gentiles, that is, unless "Gentiles" in the New Testament are them. No Jew (Saul) would ever seek to circumcise any Gentiles nor to compel them to obedience to the Law of Moses (Acts 15.)

If God made covenant with non-Hebrew Gentiles, I am sure we would know his name in Scripture, just as we find a covenant with Abram by name, and other personal covenant promises (David) by name as well. There is none.
Who on this planet can trace their ancestry to the 700s BC? No one. Jews claim this and I give them benefit of the doubt. How else can we identify Israel's Savior, Deliverer, Messiah, and King?

If God made covenant with any non-Hebrew Gentile, please provide the Scripture and tell me his name. But in my studies of the Old Testament, I find no such covenant.
Do you?

I read in Acts many gentiles were saved and included on the fellowship with the Apostles

 

[Eternally-Grateful]

What you hold to is something called antisemitism, a hatred for the Jews, and taken to a deeper extreme, a hatred for Christ.

[/QUOTE]
ok dude. you need to back of.. You do not know me at all.. I am not only pro Israel. I believe God will restor them

What you hold to is phariseeism..

There is only ONE place in all the Old Testament where a New Covenant is revealed to the children of Israel and it is found prophesied by Jeremiah in 31:31-34 and nowhere does Jeremiah say Gentiles are included in this cobenant.

So you deny the Abrahamic covenant, by which we are all saved. is for Israel only?

I agree there are multiple covenant promises made by God to individual Jews and Hebrews but nowhere does God make any covenant promises to non-Hebrew Gentiles. You are adding to the Bible things that are not there revealed by the Spirit, who is the Author of the Old Testament.

lol you have alot to learn my friend.

Noahs covenant
The abrahamic covenant.

In one generation, God eventually destroyed Nineveh and the non-Hebrews of that nation, burying them so deep in the sand that we have tom dig to locate where their city once existed.

God does not destroy utterly those He loves.

Sorry, but you're adding to the Bible. If you do it once, you'll do it again, and again.

Sorry, but I find your claim to Christ questionable to hold His Word so lightly as a means to input your own personal beliefs into the text.

yawn.

this is getting boring.

Again, the abrahamic covenmant is for us all.

Rom 4: 16 herefore it is of faith that it might be according to grace, so that the promise might be sure to all the seed, not only to those who are of the law, but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all 17 (as it is written, “I have made you a father of many nations”) in the presence of Him whom he believed—God, who gives life to the dead and calls those things which do not exist as though they did; 18 who, contrary to hope, in hope believed, so that he became the father of many nations, according to what was spoken, “So shall your descendants be.” 19 And not being weak in faith, he did not consider his own body, already dead (since he was about a hundred years old), and the deadness of Sarah’s womb. 20 He did not waver at the promise of God through unbelief, but was strengthened in faith, giving glory to God, 21 ;and being fully convinced that what He had promised He was also able to perform. 22 And therefore “it was accounted to him for righteousness.”

23 Now it was not written for his sake alone that it was imputed to him, 24 but also for us. It shall be imputed to us who believe in Him who raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead, 25 who was delivered up because of our offenses, and was raised because of our justification.

 

[jeremiah1five]

@Eternally-Grateful

ok dude. you need to back of.. You do not know me at all.. I am not only pro Israel. I believe God will restor them

What you hold to is phariseeism..

So you deny the Abrahamic covenant, by which we are all saved. is for Israel only?


lol you have alot to learn my friend.

Noahs covenant
The abrahamic covenant.


yawn.

this is getting boring.

Again, the abrahamic covenmant is for us all.

Rom 4: 16 herefore it is of faith that it might be according to grace, so that the promise might be sure to all the seed, not only to those who are of the law, but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all 17 (as it is written, “I have made you a father of many nations”) in the presence of Him whom he believed—God, who gives life to the dead and calls those things which do not exist as though they did; 18 who, contrary to hope, in hope believed, so that he became the father of many nations, according to what was spoken, “So shall your descendants be.” 19 And not being weak in faith, he did not consider his own body, already dead (since he was about a hundred years old), and the deadness of Sarah’s womb. 20 He did not waver at the promise of God through unbelief, but was strengthened in faith, giving glory to God, 21 ;and being fully convinced that what He had promised He was also able to perform. 22 And therefore “it was accounted to him for righteousness.”


23 Now it was not written for his sake alone that it was imputed to him, 24 but also for us. It shall be imputed to us who believe in Him who raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead, 25 who was delivered up because of our offenses, and was raised because of our justification.
[/QUOTE]

RESPONSE:
Born-again Christians today read and study the Old Testament the SAME WAY the disciples James, John, Peter, and even Saul studied the Old Testament. They read what was written and they interpret it as written. The New Testament writings are evidence of that method. It's called today "exegetical" meaning:

Exegetical is an adjective that relates to the careful study or interpretation of a text, especially a religious text like the Bible, in order to draw out its original, intended meaning. The term comes from the Greek word exegesis, which means "to lead out" or "to explain."

Unlike eisegesis, which is the act of reading one's own ideas into a text, exegetical analysis is a method of study that seeks to be objective by examining the historical, cultural, grammatical, and literary context of a work. The goal of this approach is to understand what the author intended to communicate to the original audience. This practice is used not only for religious texts but also for literature, philosophy, and other forms of writing.

Exegetical study of the Holy Bible is what you are not doing.

 

[jeremiah1five]

I read in Acts many gentiles were saved and included on the fellowship with the Apostles

You of all persons here know about Exegetical study.

Born-again Christians today read and study the Old Testament the SAME WAY the disciples James, John, Peter, and even Saul studied the Old Testament. They read what was written and they interpret it as written. The New Testament writings are evidence of that method. It's called today "exegetical" meaning:

Exegetical is an adjective that relates to the careful study or interpretation of a text, especially a religious text like the Bible, in order to draw out its original, intended meaning. The term comes from the Greek word exegesis, which means "to lead out" or "to explain."

Unlike eisegesis, which is the act of reading one's own ideas into a text, exegetical analysis is a method of study that seeks to be objective by examining the historical, cultural, grammatical, and literary context of a work. The goal of this approach is to understand what the author intended to communicate to the original audience. This practice is used not only for religious texts but also for literature, philosophy, and other forms of writing.

 

[praise_yeshua]

You of all persons here know about Exegetical study.

Born-again Christians today read and study the Old Testament the SAME WAY the disciples James, John, Peter, and even Saul studied the Old Testament. They read what was written and they interpret it as written. The New Testament writings are evidence of that method. It's called today "exegetical" meaning:

Exegetical is an adjective that relates to the careful study or interpretation of a text, especially a religious text like the Bible, in order to draw out its original, intended meaning. The term comes from the Greek word exegesis, which means "to lead out" or "to explain."

Unlike eisegesis, which is the act of reading one's own ideas into a text, exegetical analysis is a method of study that seeks to be objective by examining the historical, cultural, grammatical, and literary context of a work. The goal of this approach is to understand what the author intended to communicate to the original audience. This practice is used not only for religious texts but also for literature, philosophy, and other forms of writing.

When "what is written" can be taken clearly at "face value", what is the need for exegetical analysis. Not saying there isn't an need, I'd like for you tell us all what that "need" is?

You're taking a "systematic" approach to all of this. Which is good. However, you're overstating many things here for your own advantage.

For example, you said...

There is only ONE place in all the Old Testament where a New Covenant is revealed to the children of Israel and it is found prophesied by Jeremiah in 31:31-34 and nowhere does Jeremiah say Gentiles are included in this cobenant.

I hope you realize that the context you're referencing is "New". Which simply has value relative to revelation or order. It is dependent upon something previously given. Which is easily understood relative to the context of "OLD" Covenant. Which is clearly defined in the OT.

Add this to the false claims you're making to @civic

This is true and is without question the facts of the Old Testament, that God saves through covenant, and the covenant begins with Abram the Hebrew (Gen. 14:13) in Genesis 12, 15, and 17. I am saying there is no covenant in the Hebrew Scripture between God and non-Hebrew Gentiles.

You're leaving out many covenants that existed between God (Among the members of the Holy Trinity) and other people. Which is being deceptive.

Also, you're pretending that "the" "New Covenant" ends all possibly of other covenants among God and men after Jeremiah 31:31-34.

Which isn't true at all. Let me prove it to you......

Lets just review what you referenced.....

Jer 31:31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
Jer 31:32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD:
Jer 31:33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
Jer 31:34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

I don't see anything in these verses that show forth the privileges that Christ spoke of to his disciples.

Joh 14:2 In my Father's house are many rooms. If it were not so, would I have told you that I go to prepare a place for you?
Joh 14:3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again and will take you to myself, that where I am you may be also.

Can you explain this to me?

You're insistence upon a fixed "covenant" in a "New" context that only includes Jeremiah 31:31-34 is really nonsensical.

Are you planning on having more than just Jeremiah 31:31-34 details under this "covenant" you're exclusively claiming. I know I sure am.

Your position is petty and empty. Devoid of any context of a much larger set of promises that come forth from the very Person of Jesus Christ. Christ speaks MORE than the limitations of Jeremiah.

Why do you not honor Jesus Christ? Why do you worship Jeremiah alone?

 

[praise_yeshua]

The answer to this is "No". First of all, the Law of Moses was ONLY given to the Jewish nation of Israel, so Gentiles were never commanded to keep the Law, unless they wanted to become a proselyte, i.e. to convert to Judaism.

Did the wife of Moses keep the Mosaic law? What right did she have to the Mosaic law?

 

[Eternally-Grateful]

RESPONSE:
Born-again Christians today read and study the Old Testament the SAME WAY the disciples James, John, Peter, and even Saul studied the Old Testament. They read what was written and they interpret it as written. The New Testament writings are evidence of that method. It's called today "exegetical" meaning:

Exegetical is an adjective that relates to the careful study or interpretation of a text, especially a religious text like the Bible, in order to draw out its original, intended meaning. The term comes from the Greek word exegesis, which means "to lead out" or "to explain."

Unlike eisegesis, which is the act of reading one's own ideas into a text, exegetical analysis is a method of study that seeks to be objective by examining the historical, cultural, grammatical, and literary context of a work. The goal of this approach is to understand what the author intended to communicate to the original audience. This practice is used not only for religious texts but also for literature, philosophy, and other forms of writing.

Exegetical study of the Holy Bible is what you are not doing.

Your still wrong

and you still have refused to ask my forgiveness for calling me an Antisemite, which is in error

 

[jeremiah1five]

When "what is written" can be taken clearly at "face value", what is the need for exegetical analysis. Not saying there isn't an need, I'd like for you tell us all what that "need" is?

You're taking a "systematic" approach to all of this. Which is good. However, you're overstating many things here for your own advantage.

For example, you said...



I hope you realize that the context you're referencing is "New". Which simply has value relative to revelation or order. It is dependent upon something previously given. Which is easily understood relative to the context of "OLD" Covenant. Which is clearly defined in the OT.

Add this to the false claims you're making to @civic



You're leaving out many covenants that existed between God (Among the members of the Holy Trinity) and other people. Which is being deceptive.

Also, you're pretending that "the" "New Covenant" ends all possibly of other covenants among God and men after Jeremiah 31:31-34.

Which isn't true at all. Let me prove it to you......

Lets just review what you referenced.....

Jer 31:31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
Jer 31:32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD:
Jer 31:33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
Jer 31:34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

I don't see anything in these verses that show forth the privileges that Christ spoke of to his disciples.

Joh 14:2 In my Father's house are many rooms. If it were not so, would I have told you that I go to prepare a place for you?
Joh 14:3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again and will take you to myself, that where I am you may be also.

Can you explain this to me?

You're insistence upon a fixed "covenant" in a "New" context that only includes Jeremiah 31:31-34 is really nonsensical.

Are you planning on having more than just Jeremiah 31:31-34 details under this "covenant" you're exclusively claiming. I know I sure am.

Your position is petty and empty. Devoid of any context of a much larger set of promises that come forth from the very Person of Jesus Christ. Christ speaks MORE than the limitations of Jeremiah.

Why do you not honor Jesus Christ? Why do you worship Jeremiah alone?

You are lying about the things of God. Clearly.

God made no covenant with Gentiles. If He did as you claim, then what is this Gentile's name?

 

[jeremiah1five]

Your still wrong

and you still have refused to ask my forgiveness for calling me an Antisemite, which is in error

Lying is a sin. Lying about God and His Word is what you're doing, and I am done wasting my energy posting Scripture that upholds what I said and refutes what you said.
God made NO COVENANT with Gentiles. If He did post the Scripture and tell me this Gentile's name?

 

[praise_yeshua]

You are lying about the things of God. Clearly.

God made no covenant with Gentiles. If He did as you claim, then what is this Gentile's name?

You're trying to deflect and reframe your argument. Not going to happen. I responded directly to what you said. You can reply direct to what I wrote or we can just end the conversation here.

Please review what I said and respond in accordance with what you originally stated.

 

[jeremiah1five]

You're trying to deflect and reframe your argument. Not going to happen. I responded directly to what you said. You can reply direct to what I wrote or we can just end the conversation here.

Please review what I said and respond in accordance with what you originally stated.

God is personal. He called out Abraham by name and made covenant with him.
He called out David and made a covenant with him.
God even called out MY NAME and invaded my life in a very personal way.
Hebrews 11 records the "Hall of Faith" and these all were personally known to God and named in Scripture.

If God made covenant with Gentiles it had to begin with one Gentile as was done with ONE Abraham, ONE David, etc.
So, tell me YOU who claims God made covenant with Gentiles tell me what was that Gentile's name?

(psst...there is no such thing. God never made any kind of covenant of salvation, blessing, protection, etc., with Gentiles. NONE. There's NOTHING in Scripture that says such a thing and that's why you can't find what I ask because it doesn't exist. God made NO COVENANT with Gentiles. NONE.