Why The Trinity is Wrong: Language Usage

Right. That is in keeping with Deut 18:15-18. God put his words into one of the people he choose.

Notice how John 1:14 does NOT say that God became flesh?
Connect "Word was God" with "Word became flesh" and what do you get?

You didnt answer this question of mine: Which person do you suppose John is pointing to when he said that the Word became flesh and dwelt among us?
 
Difference is (and a massive one) Jesus (because He is God) is able to hear even silent prayers - by multiple people, all at once and at different times, and in multiple languages.

Your so-called prayers to your parents don't compare with Jesus.
Look into moving the goal post. Who gave Jesus is authority? Please quote Scripture. I’m not asking your opinion, but a biblical reference.
 
You didnt answer this question of mine: Which person do you suppose John is pointing to when he said that the Word became flesh and dwelt among us?
Oh my reference to John 1:45, I thought made it clear; Jesus.

John 1:18 disproves the trinity in that it is the Father and son show. Your fatal flaw is trying to use monotheist text to prove the trinity.
 
I see who your god is.

Interesting you listen to what Darth Vader has to say instead of what God has to say. (1 Kings 8:38-39)
What God says is that YHWH is his eternal name. Scripture says that for us there is one God, the father. Explicit scripture is on my side.

Rather than concede this, you and Buch desperate inferences. Stephen did something and that proves that someone other than your way is God. Pure exegesis.
 
Jesus did not teach us to pray to him but you’re the father alone. So you must come to one of two conclusions:
  1. The apostle, Stephen disobeyed christ.
  2. you I miss interpreting scripture.
 
I am not a her, neither is God. The same holds true for your Darth Vader.

You are confused.
I’m sorry. I was using the voice dictation. Not sure what happened there.

Is it your intent to claim 1 Kings 8:38-39 is evidence that YHWH commanded us to only pray to him?
 
Oh my reference to John 1:45, I thought made it clear; Jesus.
Ok. We agree. So John 1:1 can be written as such: ...the Word (Jesus) was God. There is your anti-Arian Trinitarian proof. Nothing more needs to be said.
John 1:18 disproves the trinity in that it is the Father and son show. Your fatal flaw is trying to use monotheist text to prove the trinity.
How does your interpretation of John 1:18 align with "the Word (Jesus) was God"?
 
@Wrangler who is the US and OUR in Genesis 1:26 ? Thanks
The text is ambiguous.

And this is the point of almost all that trinitarianism relies on; The more ambiguous the text, the more trinitarians emotionally and doctrinally invest in it being taken a certain way. This is done precisely because the explicit text supporting the doctrine is nonexistent.

Because the text is not explicit, one cannot rule out one possibility or another. However, one thing is for sure; YHWH is not talking to himself. In verse 4, is the first use of 1,000's of singular pronoun's that are used for YHWH; God saw that the light was beautiful and good, and He separated the light from the darkness. So, it is extreme exegesis to subordinate explicit text to ambiguous text to fit trinitarian doctrine.

I can speculate like anyone else. And because I am so demanding that others answer questions, I will speculate an answer. God is talking to other Elohim, other heavenly beings, such as angels. While we know that man was created on Day 6, the text is less than ambiguous but silent on when Angels and other Elohim were created. One can infer he created them after v1, before Day 1.

V1 is written in the past tense; God created the heavens and the Earth. The rest of the narrative details the creation of Earth, often more generally taken to be the physical universe we are in outside of heaven. One can infer from the order that the heavens were created before the Earth. Also, take note the plural of heavens.

The text is silent on the order and magnitude of time to create the heavens. https://christianity.stackexchange....were-on-hand-to-witness-the-earth-being-creat

I hope this answers your question.
 
The text is ambiguous.

And this is the point of almost all that trinitarianism relies on; The more ambiguous the text, the more trinitarians emotionally and doctrinally invest in it being taken a certain way. This is done precisely because the explicit text supporting the doctrine is nonexistent.

Because the text is not explicit, one cannot rule out one possibility or another. However, one thing is for sure; YHWH is not talking to himself. In verse 4, is the first use of 1,000's of singular pronoun's that are used for YHWH; God saw that the light was beautiful and good, and He separated the light from the darkness. So, it is extreme exegesis to subordinate explicit text to ambiguous text to fit trinitarian doctrine.

I can speculate like anyone else. And because I am so demanding that others answer questions, I will speculate an answer. God is talking to other Elohim, other heavenly beings, such as angels. While we know that man was created on Day 6, the text is less than ambiguous but silent on when Angels and other Elohim were created. One can infer he created them after v1, before Day 1.

V1 is written in the past tense; God created the heavens and the Earth. The rest of the narrative details the creation of Earth, often more generally taken to be the physical universe we are in outside of heaven. One can infer from the order that the heavens were created before the Earth. Also, take note the plural of heavens.

The text is silent on the order and magnitude of time to create the heavens. https://christianity.stackexchange....were-on-hand-to-witness-the-earth-being-creat

I hope this answers your question.
We were made also in the image of angels? And angels had a share in making us? You need to demand better answers of yourself.
 
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