Jesus stated that we must believe in God the father and also must believe in the one that He sent down from heaven to us
Who is the creator
- Thread starter Keiw1
- Start date
The "tongues" there were real human languages, not like current Charasmatic tongues who are pretty much gibberish
We still do sin even after having been saved, correct?
All of the tongues in Acts were human languages not learned, but being spoken now, not the gibberish that passes for gift of tongues so oftern today in churches
charismaticlady
Active Member
That depends on which of the two types of sin you mean, as taught in Scripture but not in Protestantism.
charismaticlady
Active Member
Yet scripturally, they did not speak languages known at the time, because no man understands speaking in tongues naturally. God is the originator of all languages. The corruption of doctrine in the Church, especially during the Reformation has contaminated people's ability to believe, so must reason away contradictory Scripture! Their unbelief is why so many in the Church call speaking in tongues "gibberish." They do not have the faith of a child, but sit in the seat of mockers. Psa. 1:1
101G
Active Member
GINOLJC, to all,
First, "Are you suggesting that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are not really three separate divine beings?". NO, only ONE divine being, "Spirit".
Second, "Is your view really a monotheistic view of three only in functional relationship with the creation?". no, and again, no.101G's view of God is monotheistic of one PERSON who is Spirit....... "SHARED" EQUALLY, and fully in flesh and bone. Just exactly as Philippians 2:6 clearly, and 101G means CLEARLY states.
understand, God the ONE TRUE PERSON who is the "EQUAL SHARE" of "HIMSELF" in flesh and blood that was to come . which answer the plurality of God as "US" and "OUR" in Genesis 1:26, which was to come (in flesh and bones, the Last), Per John 1:1-3)), and the singularly of "HIS" and "HE" (the First, Spirit), before he came and "SHARED" himself in flesh and bones. this COMING in "TIME", "PLACE", and "RANK", is the "ORDER" of designations. FIRST/Father/Spirit/LORD ...... LAST/Son/Lord.
Now, an example of 101G's proof of this in the bible. .... Scripture, "WATCH THE TERM "WITH". Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."
here in Isaiah 41:4, the LORD, "ONE" Person is the "FIRST", correct... and this ONE person is "WITH" the "LAST", correct. and we know that the LORD is "ONE" person, because he said, "I AM HE", and he is ONE, or a single person.... correct. NOW THIS,
Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." now, that term "ALSO" here means, in addition; too ... the same one PERSON who is "LORD"/God, because again the LORD, who said, I am he; ... the "FIRST" said, "I ALSO"/in addition too, being the "FIRST", I AM ..... ALSO the LAST. please re-read both of the Isaiah scriptures please....
now, notice, the term "WITH" in John 1:1. the same "WITH" used in Isaiah. John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." with meaning the same ONE person, in "TIME", "PLACE", "ORDER" and "RANK" is now shared in flesh and bone. just like Philippians 2:6 clearly states, "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" there's that "WITH" again. now clearly explained, for the scripture said, "EQUAL" ....... "WITH" God. notice the scripture said, ""EQUAL" "WITH" God and not "EQUAL" "TO" God which would indicate a separate and distinct person. but the scripture clearly states, "EQUAL" ....... "WITH" God, indicating the same PERSON just as Isaiah and John said.
understand, this FACT, that God is a "Diversity" of "HIMSELF, we see this in Genesis 1:1 in the term "Beginning". go to the verse
BEGINNING: H7225 רֵאשִׁית re'shiyth (ray-sheeth') n-f.
1. the first, in place, time, order or rank.
2. (specifically) a firstfruit.
[from the same as H7218]
KJV: beginning, chief(-est), first(-fruits, part, time), principal thing.
Root(s): H7218
there is our answer in DESIGNATIONS, "FIRST". now that "ORDER" of FIRST and LAST in designations. scripture, Deuteronomy 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:" this term "ONE" here says it all for our DESIGNATIONS of "ORDER", the First and the Last,
ONE: H259 אֶחָד 'echad (ech-awd') adj.
1. (properly) united, i.e. one.
2. (as an ordinal) first.
[a numeral from H258]
KJV: a, alike, alone, altogether, and, any(-thing), apiece, a certain, (dai-)ly, each (one), + eleven, every, few, first, + highway, a man, once, one, only, other, some, together.
Root(s): H258
Bingo, .... definition #2. confirms our ORDINAL designation of "FIRST"....... Spirit/Father/LORD, just as Isaiah and John, and the Philippians do.
now, .... you do know that the Lord Jesus is the "Last", as in the LAST ADAM.... correct. which is identified as the OFFSPRING. let's see this in scriptures. Revelation 22:16 "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star." ROOT indicate, "FIRST", and OFFSPRING, (that which was "BORN", flesh and blood, the Son), indicate the "LAST". the same one person "EQUALLY SHARED" in "TIME", "PLACE", "ORDER", and "RANK", just as Genesis 1:1 clearly STATES.... this is confirmed through out the bible.
101G.
P.S. if you have any legitimate question as to what 101G has said, please asked.
TibiasDad
Active Member
There are two aspects of the gift of tongues, private usage and public usage, or to put it another way, one in which interpretation is necessary and one where it is not.
That is the point of 1Cor 14 in my humble opinion. Of tongues is a gift whose purpose is for unbelievers, as Paul clearly states, then interpretation someone needs to interpret in order that all may benefit from the message. Thus, tongues are a means of the Spirit to demonstrate the power and authenticity of God’s message to unbelievers.
I was once told an account of a Wesleyan missionary who was in a foreign country for a conference. He did not speak the language of the host country, but was asked to pray before the meeting began.
After the meeting, a member of the host country came up to the missionary and exclaimed that that was the best use of his native language he had ever heard by a foreigner. The missionary replied that he didn’t speak in anything but English, to which the host said, ‘but our language is what we heard.”
Now some have called this the ‘gift of ears’, which of course has no scriptural foundation per se, but no matter what it’s called, the message of the missionary’s words were heard by the hosts in their own language.
So I think God can use “tongues” in many different ways for his purposes, the primary reason being to make his message heard by those for whom it is intended.
Doug
All Greek texts existing was done from Catholicism translating.
Only the wicked fear using Gods name in vain. The righteous run to it. The bible is clear. That name is to be praised, called upon, shared. All true followers do all 3 daily.
AND separates the great God and the savior=2 being spoken about.
All the translations you quote were translated from Catholicism translating.
Yes Believe Jehovah( Father) = THE ONLY TRUE GOD( John 17:3)---- and believe Jesus is the one sent from God= the Messiah.
TibiasDad
Active Member
The Greek text and the translation of the text are two separate things. From which of the 5800 Greek texts is the NWT based on/translated from?
The wicked don’t care if they use it in vain!
Only ones who respect the Name fear misusing it.
I do not disagree. But you are running to a false version of God.
TibiasDad
Active Member
The Greek text and the translations thereof are two separate things. (And why should I believe someone about Greek who can’t even conjugate English properly? “All Greek texts existing were done from Catholic translations.”)
The wicked don’t care how they used God’s name! Only those with respect for God’s name fear misusing it.
I agree completely! The question is which version of God are you running to? I believe you are running to, praising, and sharing the wrong version of God.
Doug
TibiasDad
Active Member
τοῦ μεγάλου Θεοῦ καὶ Σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ,
It literally says the appearing “of the great God and Savior of us Jesus Christ!
It would not be improper to translate it as “ the appearing of Jesus Christ, our great God and Savior! Theologically, Jesus’s appearing is what we are looking for, not the Father’s.
Great God and Savior are a singular point of reference and the genitive pronoun, “of us” follows directly to refer to the “great God and Savior as a singular unit. (Theou, God, and Soteros, savior, are genitive to match the genitive pronoun ‘of us/our’, making them a cohesive unit.) There is no comma in the Greek until after ‘Jesus Christ’ further indicating the view of a singular being.
Doug
That same Jesus stated that he and the Father shared in very glory of God
We all sin after saved still
The tongues of the book of Acts were all known human languages that the speaker did not know, and contrast that with modern day gibberish of tongues
No, rather was proven by the Grandville Sharp Rule of Greek Grammar
Grandville Sharp Rule 101
TibiasDad
Active Member
There seems to be a difference of purpose in 1Cor 14 than that of Acts 2. Corinthians deals with a personal application of tongues as a prayer language of sorts, in personal worship. But to use this in a public setting is counterproductive unless it can be interpreted for all to understand what was being said.
Doug
Similar threads
