Romans 5:14
“Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses,
even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.”
Which I have always understood to be
even over infants, who did not actually sin,
but sinned in Adam. Even if the persons here referred to were those who did not break a positive or a revealed law,
yet it will come to the same thing. If the reign of death proves the reign of sin in such persons, must not the reign of death over
infants equally prove the reign of sin? If the death of adults before the time of
Moses was a proof of their being sinners
then of necessity the death of infants must prove the same thing. If death does not prove sin in
infants it cannot prove sin in any. If
infants may die though they are not
sinners, then may adults die without being sinners.
I'm not at liberty to swim in waters where Scripture is silent,
@Red Baker.
Romans 5:14 Textual Analysis
Textus Receptus:
"ἀλλὰ ἐβασίλευσεν ὁ θάνατος ἀπὸ Ἀδὰμ μέχρι Μωϋσέως, καὶ ἐπὶ τοὺς μὴ ἁμαρτήσαντας ἐπὶ τῷ ὁμοιώματι τῆς παραβάσεως Ἀδὰμ, ὅς ἐστι τύπος τοῦ μέλλοντος."
Key phrase:
"τοὺς μὴ ἁμαρτήσαντας ἐπὶ τῷ ὁμοιώματι τῆς παραβάσεως Ἀδὰμ"
Literally: "those who did not sin in the likeness of Adam's transgression."
This implies there were people who suffered death without committing a willful, deliberate transgression like Adam.
Who Are "Those Who Did Not Sin After the Likeness of Adam's Transgression"?
Scholars propose several possibilities:
Infants and Young Children – They are morally incapable of committing conscious sin yet still die, which would indicate that death affects them due to Adam’s sin, even though they did not "sin" as Adam did.
Pre-Mosaic Individuals Without Law – Some interpret this as those who lived before the giving of the Mosaic Law (since the context is "from Adam to Moses"), implying that death reigned even over those who did not transgress an explicit command as Adam did.
Gentiles Without Special Revelation – Some extend this to include Gentiles outside the Law, though this view is less likely given the specific timeframe mentioned.
Does This Support Infants Being Guilty of Sin in Adam?
The phrase "did not sin in the likeness of Adam’s transgression" suggests that some died without personal transgression.
Since Romans 6:23 states, "the wages of sin is death," this raises the question: Why did death reign over those who did not sin personally?
This strongly suggests that death, as a penalty, was inherited from Adam, even by those who had not personally sinned (which includes infants).
This supports the view that infants are affected by Adam’s sin but does not necessarily prove
they are personally guilty of it.
Cross-References-
Deuteronomy 1:39 – Infants and young children were considered to have "no knowledge of good or evil," implying they lack moral culpability.
Isaiah 7:16 – Speaks of a stage where a child "does not yet know to refuse evil and choose good."
Ezekiel 18:20 – "The soul that sinneth, it shall die,"
emphasizing personal responsibility rather than inherited guilt.
1 Corinthians 15:22 – "In Adam all die," reinforcing that death affects all, not necessarily through personal sin but through Adam’s original transgression.
Conclusion
Romans 5:14 affirms that death affects even those who have not committed personal sin in the way Adam did. This aligns with the idea that infants and others who lack moral capacity are still subject to death due to Adam’s sin,
but it does not explicitly state that they are personally guilty of sin.
This distinction is crucial in differentiating between inherited consequences (mortality, corruption) and imputed guilt (whether they are personally accountable before God).
This is beyond my depth and above my understanding, brother.
J.